21 Mar 18
Originally posted by @sonshipThat's a very 'low' response.
If you don't even honor the existence of God you really have no reason to condemn slavery as objectively bad.
Do you believe God exists at all?
Are you a coward?
Morality comes from man, who has full entitlement to condemn slavery, in all its forms (realizing, as he does, the basic right to freedom).
21 Mar 18
Any answer by documentation yet ?
So if the master kills his human "property" by a beating it is judged as capital murder. That's what we have. Let's then work with that, just for argument's sake.
How come the master can't do whatever he well pleases with his property then? Its his property. He can save it or destroy it. He can do whatever he wants with his property.
Could you document a few cases in my country, the US, which was heavy into Slavery for a few centuries, of a white slave master tried and convicted for murder, at killing his African slave? Its his property, recommends the Bible.
Could you submit an instance of "avenging" or being "punished"at the hands of society in the antebellum South for a black African slave dying under the hands of his or her white American master?
Let me see if we're dealing with two identical systems.
I'm out here on a limb now. You just might find an instance.
Or just more rhetorical assertions?
Originally posted by @sonshipNo doubt the US similarly had a prohibition on kidnapping human beings when chattel slavery was still legal. Slaves imported from Africa were considered chattel rather than human beings. Similarly for the chattel slavery condoned in Leviticus 25:44-46.
Did God condone kidnapping?
The slavery I am most familiar with, my ancestors having been slaves, involves kidnapping?
Leviticus 25
44“ ‘Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life,..
21 Mar 18
Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-dukeHe was working within a system developed by man to whom He gave free will.
Why not admit the OT God condoned slavery?
Do you disagree with that?
21 Mar 18
Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-dukeYou’re aware that the Mosaic law pertained only to the Jews, right? That, if one accepts your position of God condoning slavery for argument’s sake, God’s statements concerning it applied only to Jews, correct?
No. The reason I link God with condoning slavery is that it is right there in the OT.
An honest heart would recognize that and not listen to an overworked brain.
(And I wager I sin less than you).
21 Mar 18
Originally posted by @romans1009Yes.
He was working within a system developed by man to whom He gave free will.
Do you disagree with that?
Why would an infinite being work within a system developed by a finite being and be complicit in its transgressions?
The free will defense is not applicable here.
Originally posted by @romans1009Do you accept God is unchanging?
You’re aware that the Mosaic law pertained only to the Jews, right? That, if one accepts your position of God condoning slavery for argument’s sake, God’s statements concerning it applied only to Jews, correct?
21 Mar 18
Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-dukeMorality doesn’t come from man. Where on earth did you ever get that idea?
That's a very 'low' response.
Morality comes from man, who has full entitlement to condemn slavery, in all its forms (realizing, as he does, the basic right to freedom).
Originally posted by @romans1009What a nonsensical premise.
He was working within a system developed by man to whom He gave free will.
Do you disagree with that?
Men have the free will to commit murder, yet God didn't condone it.
Similarly just because Men have the free will to enslave others, doesn't mean that God had to condone it.
Originally posted by @romans1009Man.
Morality doesn’t come from man. Where on earth did you ever get that idea?
21 Mar 18
Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-dukeYes.
Do you accept God is unchanging?
Do you agree that the Ten Commandments and the rest of the Mosaic law were given to and for only the Jews?
Originally posted by @romans1009Irrelevant. God, as you acknowledge, is unchanging. Why would he consider slavery right for the Jews and wrong for other groups?
Yes.
Do you agree that the Ten Commandments and the rest of the Mosaic law were given to and for only the Jews?
Did he change his mind?
21 Mar 18
Originally posted by @thinkofoneYou’re equating something that goes against the Ten Commandments (murder) with something that does not go against the Ten Commandments (indentured servitude or slavery as a result of conquest.)
What a nonsensical premise.
Men have the free will to commit murder, yet God didn't condone it.
Similarly just because Men have the free will to enslave others, doesn't mean that God had to condone it.
Is God responsible for people running up debts they can’t pay? Is God responsible for one group of people seeking to fight and conquer another group? How much interference do you want God to have in the affairs of men while still respecting the free will He gave them?
21 Mar 18
Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-dukeThe Mosaic law pertained to the Jews. I don’t know where you get the idea that God changed His mind. Focusing on one segment of humanity and ignoring the rest constitutes changing His mind?
Irrelevant. God, as you acknowledge, is unchanging. Why would he consider slavery right for the Jews and wrong for other groups?
Did he change his mind?