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Strawman

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Originally posted by ivanhoe

Well, if it doesn't make any difference to Thee, why would it make any difference to me ?
Where's that prayer thread?

i

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Originally posted by KneverKnight
Where's that prayer thread?

Open it !

i

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Originally posted by no1marauder
You keep saying that some ad hominem arguments aren't fallacious when they ALL are! Make up your mind, jerkwad.

You are being so vulgar, No1.

O
Digital Blasphemy

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Why were we going to open a prayer thread? Don't get me wrong, I think it could be a fascinating discussion, but is there a specific purpsoe for this?

i

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Originally posted by Omnislash
Why were we going to open a prayer thread? Don't get me wrong, I think it could be a fascinating discussion, but is there a specific purpsoe for this?

If anyone wants to discuss certain aspects of it let him open a thread, I don't mind.

f
Bruno's Ghost

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Originally posted by ivanhoe

Well, if it doesn't make any difference to Thee, why would it make any difference to me ?
Why should it?

i

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Originally posted by frogstomp
Why should it?

I don't know. It is you who thinks it would be a bad idea to mention your denomination.

C
W.P. Extraordinaire

State of Franklin

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Originally posted by ivanhoe

I don't know. It is you who thinks it would be a bad idea to mention your denomination.
Did you say demonation?

i

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Originally posted by Coletti
Did you say demonation?

😛 😀

f
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Originally posted by ivanhoe

😛 😀
Just say it's not one of the fake christian churches like Coletti's.

l

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Originally posted by no1marauder
1. Look, you and others constantly fail to ascertain the difference between a deductive and inductive argument. I cannot "demonstrate" i.e. logically prove that the principles behind the interpretation of legal documents are just as applicable in interpreting Scripture; I can only make arguments supporting the idea that they should be. I have used logi ...[text shortened]... m using are not universal, at least until it matters in the argument. What say you?

I'll need more time than I can manage at work to respond to this, so I'll have to wait till the end of the day. Needless to say, I'm not against a "truce" on the legal hermeneutics matter.

l

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Originally posted by no1marauder
1. Look, you and others constantly fail to ascertain the difference between a deductive and inductive argument. I cannot "demonstrate" i.e. logically prove that the principles behind the interpretation of legal documents are just as applicable in interpreting Scripture; I can only make arguments supporting the idea that they should be. I have used logi ...[text shortened]... m using are not universal, at least until it matters in the argument. What say you?

Alright, I'll stop talking about whether the hermeneutic principle you're using is used in legal systems outside the US. Anything to keep you from going to the library! 😉

Regarding the language issue, it is not a question of abdicating your reasoning facilities - but of using them to their fullest. For instance, the question "Why do you call me good?" can be translated into my native tongue (Malayalam) in two ways - one of which is usually rhetorical and the other not. Reading the statement in English means one might miss the sense of the original. Also, while the statement might connote a denial in English, it is not necessary that it should do so in another language.

C
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Originally posted by lucifershammer
...Also, while the statement might connote a denial in English, ....
And in this case it does not connote a denial in English. Which is why it is absurd for one to assert that it denotes a denial. It's absurd to assert that a question denotes a denial when it does not even connote one. As you have said, (and even No1 has indicated) we must understand the text with regard to the author's intent.

no1marauder
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Originally posted by Coletti
And in this case it does not connote a denial in English. Which is why it is absurd for one to assert that it denotes a denial. It's absurd to assert that a question denotes a denial when it does not even connote one. As you have said, (and even No1 has indicated) we must understand the text with regard to the author's intent.
You can keep parroting the same line, but the rhetorical question certainly does connote a denial of being "good". It was clearly understood by the Rich Young Man as a command not to call Jesus "good". And the second sentence says God IS good. Thus, the passage in its clear and obvious meaning is Jesus saying he is not God and you've given no reasonable interpretation of the passage that is otherwise, instead relying on passages distant in time and with different authors to say the passage can't mean what it clearly says. This is not interpretation; it is a pig headed insistence to make everything dovetail wuith your preconceived (predetermined?) ideas.

C
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Originally posted by no1marauder
You can keep parroting the same line, but the rhetorical question certainly does connote a denial of being "good". It was clearly understood by the Rich Young Man as a command not to call Jesus "good". And the second sentence says God IS good. Thus, the passage in its clear and obvious meaning is Jesus saying he is not God and you've given ...[text shortened]... ig headed insistence to make everything dovetail wuith your preconceived (predetermined?) ideas.
You can only come to that interpretation by ignoring the intent of the author - and you have given no reason for doing so. I have given two additional valid interpretations and shown how one is clearly consistent with the rest of the text. So it is your preconceived notions that dictate your understanding. You don't even apply your own standards of interpretation.

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