06 Oct 06
Originally posted by DoctorScribblesIf the Christians are correct and there is a God, then yes he did "let them acting in his name have at Copernicus". Why would he need to be reborn to do something about it? Jesus in his life time (according to the Bible that is) did not attempt to right many "wrongs" here on earth, but rather took that stance that your rewards in heaven would counteract any suffering experienced down here.
He stuck up for the adulteress.
You really think he would have let them -- those purporting to be his alleged Rock, acting in his name -- have at Copernicus?
This leads us to a major philosophical flaw in Christian theology. If a rightious person suffers and God allows it to happen then there are two possibilities:
1. The suffering is a 'good' thing, either because it will some how benefit the person, or it 'prooves' to God how righteous the person is, or for some other reason.
2. It is a bad thing but God just goes ahead and allows it. (Meaning that he is not as benevolent as some claim.
If 1. is true then why is it then sin for another person to make the righteous suffer? Surely you are actually doing Gods will?
06 Oct 06
Originally posted by DoctorScribblesWas that a trick question?
Was that law that an adulteress ought to be stoned to death given from God?
Leviticus 20:10
"If a man commits adultery with another man's wife—with the wife of his neighbor—both the adulterer and the adulteress must be put to death."
06 Oct 06
Originally posted by twhiteheadThis leads us to a major philosophical flaw in Christian theology.
If the Christians are correct and there is a God, then yes he did "let them acting in his name have at Copernicus". Why would he need to be reborn to do something about it? Jesus in his life time (according to the Bible that is) did not attempt to right many "wrongs" here on earth, but rather took that stance that your rewards in heaven would counteract a ...[text shortened]... or another person to make the righteous suffer? Surely you are actually doing Gods will?
As long as one cannot adjust one's mind to the reality of the co-existence of the will of man with the sovereignty of God, the equation breaks down right out of the gate.
06 Oct 06
Originally posted by FreakyKBHIt appear my mind is unadjustable because I really cant see how 'the will of man' or 'the sovereignty of God' (whatever that may mean) can change the situation.
As long as one cannot adjust one's mind to the reality of the co-existence of the will of man with the sovereignty of God, the equation breaks down right out of the gate.
07 Oct 06
Originally posted by twhiteheadThe sovereignty of God is simple enough, but one must consider the fact that He 'yields' to a degree to the will of man. He has made man with a sovereign will of limited scope, in the image of Him. He respects that will while never compromising His own.
It appear my mind is unadjustable because I really cant see how 'the will of man' or 'the sovereignty of God' (whatever that may mean) can change the situation.