26 Apr 11
Originally posted by RJHindsNothing at all my friend. It is Jehovah as David only called Jehovah LORD as he did not know Jesus as a Lord. Jesus was not ever called Lord before it was given to him by his Father Jehovah if you read verse 36 in Acts 2.
I am still having a hard time getting what you are trying to say.
Where then does it explain the difference between the LORD and
David's Lord?
If you have a Bible that does use the capital LORD in it's pages and go back to David's words anywhere in Psalms the word LORD will always be capitalized. For example this scripture in two different Bible's:
Psalm 94:1 (Darby Translation)
Psalm 94
1 O God of vengeances, Jehovah, God of vengeances, shine forth;
Now,
Psalm 94:1 (Today’s New International Version, ©2005)
Psalm 94
1 The LORD is a God who avenges.
O God who avenges, shine forth.
26 Apr 11
Originally posted by DowardOk..whatever. It's in the post from Wiki and others I just posted but I guess your not going to read it.
I read it, the word Jehovah does not appear anywhere in the ancient text, only the tetragrammaton YHWH. Your cut and paste means nothing because it lies about what is replaced
26 Apr 11
Originally posted by galveston75That is why I don't understand you. Since David did not know Jesus,
Nothing at all my friend. It is Jehovah as David only called Jehovah LORD as he did not know Jesus as a Lord. Jesus was not ever called Lord before it was given to him by his Father Jehovah if you read verse 36 in Acts 2.
If you have a Bible that does use the capital LORD in it's pages and go back to David's words anywhere in Psalms the word LORD will ...[text shortened]... n, ©2005)
Psalm 94
1 The LORD is a God who avenges.
O God who avenges, shine forth.
why would you say the "my Lord" is Jesus? You do understand that it
was David that said this don't you?
26 Apr 11
Originally posted by galveston75Let me quote the same verse you quoted again from a the New American
I don't believe David was the one speaking in that scripture...
Standard Bible and maybe you will see it this time.
For it was not David who ascended into heaven, but he himself says:
"THE LORD SAID TO MY LORD, SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND, UNTIL I MAKE
THINE ENEMIES A FOOTSTOOL FOR THY FEET."
Acts 2:34 NASB
This quote in Acts is from Psalm 110 which is recognized by all Biblical
scholars as A Psalm of David and even the writer in Acts says it was
David that said this.
26 Apr 11
1 edit
Originally posted by RJHinds29"Brethren, I may confidently say to you regarding the patriarch David that he both died and was buried, and his tomb is with us to this day.
Let me quote the same verse you quoted again from a the New American
Standard Bible and maybe you will see it this time.
For it was not David who ascended into heaven, but he himself says:
"THE LORD SAID TO MY LORD, SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND, UNTIL I MAKE
THINE ENEMIES A FOOTSTOOL FOR THY FEET."
Acts 2:34 NASB
This quote in Acts is from Psalm 110 wh ...[text shortened]... l
scholars as A Psalm of David and even the writer in Acts says it was
David that said this.
30"And so, because he was a prophet and knew that GOD HAD SWORN TO HIM WITH AN OATH TO SEAT one OF HIS DESCENDANTS ON HIS THRONE,
31he looked ahead and spoke of the resurrection of the Christ, that HE WAS NEITHER ABANDONED TO HADES, NOR DID His flesh SUFFER DECAY.
32"This Jesus God raised up again, to which we are all witnesses.
33"Therefore having been exalted to the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, He has poured forth this which you both see and hear.
34"For it was not David who ascended into heaven, but he himself says:
'THE LORD SAID TO MY LORD,
"SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND,
35UNTIL I MAKE YOUR ENEMIES A FOOTSTOOL FOR YOUR FEET."'
Acts 2:29-35 NASB from www.biblegateway.com
These are power verses that Peter is using. Who's throne is this descendant inheriting ? God's throne it appears from these scriptures.
Manny
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26 Apr 11
Originally posted by divegeesterIt is to be read as it reads, regardless of anyone's explanation.
Romans 10:9
That if you confess with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
So if we accept Galveston's explanation that LORD = Jehovah, and Lord = Jesus, how would the above scripture read?
26 Apr 11
Originally posted by menace71It says to "sit at my right hand" not the throne or seat of God himself but at his "right hand".
29"Brethren, I may confidently say to you regarding the patriarch David that he both died and was buried, and his tomb is with us to this day.
30"And so, because he was a prophet and knew that GOD HAD SWORN TO HIM WITH AN OATH TO SEAT one OF HIS DESCENDANTS ON HIS THRONE,
31he looked ahead and spoke of the resurrection of the Christ, that HE WAS NEI ...[text shortened]... this descendant inheriting ? God's throne it appears from these scriptures.
Manny
Again the "LORD" is Jehoavh and the one to sit at the right hand of God is Jesus who the title "Lord" was given to by his Father.
You do understand the word lord is just a title that many can have? It's not just a word reserved to Jehovah or Jesus?
LORD
The Greek and Hebrew words rendered “lord” (or such related terms as “sir,” “owner,” “master&rdquo😉 are used with reference to Jehovah God (Eze 3:11), Jesus Christ (Mt 7:21), one of the elders seen by John in vision (Re 7:13, 14), angels (Ge 19:1, 2; Da 12:8), men (1Sa 25:24; Ac 16:16, 19, 30), and false deities (1Co 8:5). Often the designation “lord” denotes one who has ownership or authority and power over persons or things. (Ge 24:9; 42:30; 45:8, 9; 1Ki 16:24; Lu 19:33; Ac 25:26; Eph 6:5) This title was applied by Sarah to her husband (Ge 18:12), by children to their fathers (Ge 31:35; Mt 21:28, 29), and by a younger brother to his older brother (Ge 32:5, 6). It appears as a title of respect addressed to prominent persons, public officials, prophets, and kings. (Ge 23:6; 42:10; Nu 11:28; 2Sa 1:10; 2Ki 8:10-12; Mt 27:63) When used in addressing strangers, “lord,” or “sir,” served as a title of courtesy.—Joh 12:21; 20:15; Ac 16:30.
26 Apr 11
Originally posted by divegeesterUh...exactly what it says.
Romans 10:9
That if you confess with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
So if we accept Galveston's explanation that LORD = Jehovah, and Lord = Jesus, how would the above scripture read?
26 Apr 11
Originally posted by galveston75Since you respect Wikipedia articles, here arelinks to two more you
I didn't say you did and your wrong. The name Jehovah was taken out over 7000 times in the Bible including the 237 times it was taken out of the NT.
From Wikipedia:
In Judaism, the Tetragrammaton is conventionally substituted by Adonai ("my Lord" ) when reading the text of the Bible. Based on this practice, the traditional translation of the Tetra ...[text shortened]... rg/e/na/article_06.htm
http://removinggodsname.xanga.com/329800252/item/
should be interest in:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jehovah
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jehovah%27s_Witnesses
26 Apr 11
Originally posted by galveston75This is from the article "Jehovah's Witnesses" in Wikipedia:
It says to "sit at my right hand" not the throne or seat of God himself but at his "right hand".
Again the "LORD" is Jehoavh and the one to sit at the right hand of God is Jesus who the title "Lord" was given to by his Father.
You do understand the word lord is just a title that many can have? It's not just a word reserved to Jehovah or Jesus?
...[text shortened]... strangers, “lord,” or “sir,” served as a title of courtesy.—Joh 12:21; 20:15; Ac 16:30.
God's kingdomWitness publications teach that God's kingdom is a literal government in heaven, ruled by Jesus Christ and 144,000 Christians drawn from the earth.[175] The kingdom is viewed as the means by which God will accomplish his original purpose for the earth,[176][177] transforming earth into a paradise without sickness or death.[178] It is said to have been the focal point of Jesus' ministry on earth[179] and established in heaven in 1914.[180] They believe 1914 marks the restoration of God's rule over earth after being halted for 2520 years since 607 BC, the date they uniquely assign to the destruction of Jerusalem by the Babylonians.[181]
26 Apr 11
Originally posted by RJHindsCorrect..so what's your point here?
This is from the article "Jehovah's Witnesses" in Wikipedia:
God's kingdomWitness publications teach that God's kingdom is a literal government in heaven, ruled by Jesus Christ and 144,000 Christians drawn from the earth.[175] The kingdom is viewed as the means by which God will accomplish his original purpose for the earth,[176][177] transforming earth i ...[text shortened]... C, the date they uniquely assign to the destruction of Jerusalem by the Babylonians.[181]
26 Apr 11
1 edit
Originally posted by galveston75I READ it. Jews did not write out the full name of God. So therefore it is dishonest to say that the name Jehovah was removed from the text. Only the four letter tetragrammaton called YHWH was replaced with the english word of same meaning ...LORD. No one knows for sure if the "true" name of God is Jehovah because the vowals were never included. Robbie admitted as much in a previous debate on this issue.
Ok..whatever. It's in the post from Wiki and others I just posted but I guess your not going to read it.
Now....admit that Jehovah may not actually be the name of God and that the watchtower is being purposefully dishonest or forever lose any credibility you may or may not have had