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Who hardened Pharaoh's heart?

Who hardened Pharaoh's heart?

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p

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Originally posted by joelek
You (and many others) make the argument that God holds responsibility because he hardened Pharaoh's heart. I could just as easily make the argument that Pharaoh holds responsibility because he hardened his heart.
Originally posted by joelek
You (and many others) make the argument that God holds responsibility because he hardened Pharaoh's heart. I could just as easily make the argument that Pharaoh holds responsibility because he hardened his heart.

Do you blame a soldier in the war for walking into a bullet ? If God by his own admission guides the Pharaoh, how could he resist ? And suppose he did resist God's will and let them go, he'd be evil too for resisting the will of God. So what's the poor devil to do ?

Looks like both the Egyptians and the Moses' people were framed and born to bleed for the mad little games this God wants to play. Good thing this is just a story although the killing part probably isn't.

a

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these arguments echo alot of the very reasons that i severly questioned that god=good=love
as a xian you must accept all that is written in the bible on blindfauth(sorry blindfaith not you) and to me i am an inquisitive type by nature
and alot of what is in the bible the OT especially sounds harsh
not at all like the loving god of the NT
my assessment????god is bi polar....needs meds

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Originally posted by Nemesio
Originally posted by FreakyKBH
I don't have to explain it because [b]they don't
.

That is, God commands us to obey 'thou shalt
not murder' but breaks the Commandment Himself, but this doesn't cause any turbulance
in your head.

Nemesio[/b]
By explanation, that is to mean, without the historical aspect of the exodous, how does anyone explain the existence of the Jewish race, period? The tradition just morphed on its own accord, without any historical reference or argument on the part of objectivity?
Impossible to explain the origin of a tradition that doesn't have some historical element to the same. Even less likely is one that encourages questioning and unflinching examination of truth and source.

Murder or killing? Two distinct propositions resulting in the same physical conclusion. Murder can only be done by a creature, as only a creature is capable of the required emotion. Please do not bring anthropomorphisms into the argument.

Nemesio
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Originally posted by FreakyKBH
By explanation, that is to mean, without the historical aspect of the exodous, how does anyone explain the existence of the Jewish race, period? The tradition just morphed on its own accord, without any historical reference or argument on the part of objectivity? Impossible to explain the origin of a tradition that doesn't have some historical element to the same. Even less likely is one that encourages questioning and unflinching examination of truth and source.


I never said that it didn't have some historical element. It's clear that
the Jews were in Egypt. It's clear that they were much maligned and even some
were enslaved. It's clear that they escaped and formed their own nation.

I'm sure they had a leader of some sort. I don't doubt his name was Moses. I
don't doubt that he was charismatic, clever, and a man of vision.

What I doubt is the literal veracity of the Exodus account. Why do I doubt this?
Because from the time it happened to the time it was written down was quite
extensive. And the Jews have a long, long, LONG tradition of interpolatory creative
writing. So, where the shores of the Red Sea might have been severely receded so
that they could cross, but the chariots could not, the story evolved into God's
parting of the sea and slaughtering the Egyptians afterwards. I don't object or even
am bothered by the use of metaphor because, like today, the Jews were angry at the
Egyptians and anthropomorphized their anger unto God.

Murder or killing? Two distinct propositions resulting in the same physical conclusion. Murder can only be done by a creature, as only a creature is capable of the required emotion. Please do not bring anthropomorphisms into the argument.

First of all, what is the 'required emotion?' Second, why can murder only be done
'by a creature?' Third, can lies and theft only be done by creatures, too?

And most importantly, you should review the first three chapters of Genesis, wherein
it is stated that we are made in the likeness of God. And, particularly in chapter 3,
it is clear that immortality is the defining characteristic that makes us different from
God; both God and we have knowledge of good and evil, by His own words.

It would seem that, given the fact that we are made in His image, anthropomorphisms
have a very relative place -- God gets angry, God shows mercy, God blesses this, God
is swayed by that, God talks, God listens...He does a lot of anthro-things. Why is it if
He kills, it isn't murder? What if He says something that isn't true, is it not lying?

Nemesio

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Originally posted by FreakyKBH
Murder can only be done by a creature, as only a creature is capable of the required emotion.
Angels make the best assassins.

K
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Originally posted by FreakyKBH
By explanation, that is to mean, without the historical aspect of the exodous, how does anyone explain the existence of the Jewish race, period? The tradition just morphed on its own accord, without any historical reference or argument on the part of objectivity?
Impossible to explain the origin of a tradition that doesn't have some historical element t ...[text shortened]... re is capable of the required emotion. Please do not bring anthropomorphisms into the argument.
First off - the Commandment is "Thou Shalt not Kill" - even though the newer bible versions say murder...

Second - The requeired emotion? There are slews of examples of God loving, being angry, being spiteful, being violent, being volitile, being forgiving, being in every other FREAKING emotional state that humans experience.... so God DOES possess the required emotion to murder.

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Originally posted by KnightWulfe
First off - the Commandment is "Thou Shalt not Kill" - even though the newer bible versions say murder...

Second - The requeired emotion? There are slews of examples of God loving, being angry, being spiteful, being violent, being volitile, being forgiving, being in every other FREAKING emotional state that humans experience.... so God DOES possess the required emotion to murder.
First off - the Commandment is "Thou Shalt not Kill" - even though the newer bible versions say murder...

I thought this has been covered before - the Hebrew word used is the one for murder. It doesn't mean older "Thou Shalt not Kill" translations are wrong - the word "kill" probably had stronger connotations of murder in the past.

vistesd

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Nemesio: I never said that it didn't have some historical element. It's clear that
the Jews were in Egypt. It's clear that they were much maligned and even some
were enslaved. It's clear that they escaped and formed their own nation.

I'm sure they had a leader of some sort. I don't doubt his name was Moses. I
don't doubt that he was charismatic, clever, and a man of vision.

What I doubt is the literal veracity of the Exodus account. Why do I doubt this?
Because from the time it happened to the time it was written down was quite
extensive. And the Jews have a long, long, LONG tradition of interpolatory creative
writing. So, where the shores of the Red Sea might have been severely receded so
that they could cross, but the chariots could not, the story evolved into God's
parting of the sea and slaughtering the Egyptians afterwards. I don't object or even
am bothered by the use of metaphor because, like today, the Jews were angry at the
Egyptians and anthropomorphized their anger unto God.


For example, this commentary by Chaim Potok:

“We are told there were among them more than six hundred thousand males capable of bearing arms—but that is perhaps a flourish a people permits itself when it remembers a glorious and terrifying moment in its early history. A force that size, even if poorly armed, would have had little to fear from the chariots of Ramses II; and the total, including women, children, and the aged, would have numbered more than two million souls and taken up much of the wilderness through which it wandered.

“How many slaves made that escape? Three thousand? Thirty thousand? We shall probably never know.”

Wanderings: Chaim Potok’s History of the Jews, p. 90.

Now the phrase in Exodus 12:37 is shesh-meot elep ragli: six-hundred thousand ragli. ragli can mean footmen, men on foot, or foot soldiers, hence Potok’s reading that they were men “capable of bearing arms.” In 1 Samuel 15:4, for example, ragli is distinguished (as foot soldiers) from ish, which can mean simply men or “mighty men/champions.” Here it seems to be a distinction between, perhaps, infantry and “knight/warriors.”

Potok also point s out that the Hebrew words yam suf mean “sea of reeds,” and notes that there are several places to which this designation could apply.

F

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Originally posted by Nemesio
First of all, what is the 'required emotion?' Second, why can murder only be done
'by a creature?'
we are made in the likeness of God.
God gets angry, God shows mercy, God blesses this, God
is swayed by that, God talks, God listens...He does a lot of anthro-things.
Nemesio[/b]
Emotion is one of the distinguising characteristics of murder. Being void of emotion, God is not capable of murder.
Our likeness to God refers to the similarity of mind-body-spirit to the Godhead.
When the Bible speaks of God's supposed display of emotions, it is done in language of accomodation. Being emotional, being French, being number-driven, the language used accomodates the needs of the reader.

no1marauder
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Originally posted by FreakyKBH
Emotion is one of the distinguising characteristics of murder. Being void of emotion, God is not capable of murder.
Our likeness to God refers to the similarity of mind-body-spirit to the Godhead.
When the Bible speaks of God's supposed display of emotions, it is done in language of accomodation. Being emotional, being French, being number-driven, the language used accomodates the needs of the reader.
Emotion is no part of the legal definition of murder; you are badly misinformed or simply altering the meaning of the word to fit it into your own preconceived position (there's a lot of that going around here lately). Murder requires someone to intend to kill without any legal justification; intention is not an emotion. Many murderers display no emotion at all during their crimes.

Nemesio
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Originally posted by FreakyKBH
Emotion is one of the distinguising characteristics of murder. Being void of emotion, God is not capable of murder.
Not that I even remotely agree that emotion has ANYTHING to do
with murder, how do you maintain that God is devoid of emotion?
There are numerous passages which indicate pity, anger, compassion,
clemency, and a host of other emotions.

How do you explain this?

Nemesio

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Originally posted by joelek
First of all, Genesis makes no mention of the exodus story (thus the book, Exodus).

Secondly, your response is very typical on here, just as typical as flawed. You (and many others) make the argument that God holds responsibility because he hardened Pharaoh's heart. I could just as easily make the argument that Pharaoh holds responsibility becaus ...[text shortened]... false conclusions that have been reached on here, somehow blaming God for mankind's wrongdoing.
First of all, Genesis makes no mention of the exodus story (thus the book, Exodus

Oops.

You (and many others) make the argument that God holds responsibility because he hardened Pharaoh's heart. I could just as easily make the argument that Pharaoh holds responsibility because he hardened his heart.

When Pharoah did it, it was Pharoah's responsibility. When God did it, it was God's responsibility. The two did not occur simultaneously according to the passages quoted in the first post.

His hidden will is for Him, not us, to worry about.

Then why is it mentioned in the Bible?

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Originally posted by no1marauder
Many murderers display no emotion at all during their crimes.
This is based, of course, on the plethora of murders you have witnessed.

By your own definition, one can have legal justification for killing another person. Does this infer rational thought, and (only in some cases) reactionary thought? In those cases of reactionary thought, only self-preservation is protected. Rash decisions, heat of the moment, etc., if proven, will be found in violation of the law. The law protects against loss of life for irrational, i.e., emotional action.

Murder, whether premeditated or not, by law requires some impetus. One cannot murder without first intending to do so. What situation(s) would allow one to murder another without an impetus?

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Originally posted by Nemesio
How do you explain this?

Nemesio
We have covered the ground of anthropomorphisms. Let's not lose the forest for the trees.

no1marauder
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Originally posted by FreakyKBH
This is based, of course, on the plethora of murders you have witnessed.

By your own definition, one can have legal justification for killing another person. Does this infer rational thought, and (only in some cases) reactionary thought? In those cases of reactionary thought, only self-preservation is protected. Rash decisions, heat of the moment, et ...[text shortened]... rst intending to do so. What situation(s) would allow one to murder another without an impetus?
You obviously don't know what you're talking about. I have studied more cases of murder than you want to know. Sociopaths generally show no emotion when killing and neither do say, contract killers, and many others. That you are apparently ignorant of these facts has no effect on their existence has fact.

Your second paragraph is gibberish. The law protects against loss of life for both irrational AND emotional (which are not mutually exclusive; an action can be rational AND emotional and vice versa) actions. Legal justifications are usually based on the necessity of saving your own or other people's lives. There is no such thing as a legal defense of "rational" murder; an accused criminal who kills an eyewitness against him to avoid a long prison term in the belief he will get away with both crimes is being "rational" but he is still legally a murderer.

Your third paragraph has nothing to do with your original premise which was that "emotion is a distinguishing characteristic of murder". As pointed out above, legally it is not and factually it often is not. An "impetus" to murder is not necessarily emotion as again pointed out above. Your "thinking" on this matter is hopelessly confused and incoherent.

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