Who Jesus is and is not.

@thinkofone said
John was also clear on we if we sinned and what would happen if we did.

The author of 1 John was also clear and very explicit about who is of the devil, who is born of God, who abides in Christ, who has seen Christ, who knows Christ, etc.
"He that committeth sin is of the devil"
"Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin;"
"Whosoever abideth in him sinneth ...[text shortened]... c. His bottom line is still his bottom line.

Actually address it KJ instead of talking around it.

So nothing new from you, again.
You actually think the Word of God is in conflict with itself? Is God a God of confusion to you, do you wonder why the Bible doesn't line up with itself as you read it? What you need is God in your life.

@kellyjay said
So nothing new from you, again.
You actually think the Word of God is in conflict with itself? Is God a God of confusion to you, do you wonder why the Bible doesn't line up with itself as you read it? What you need is God in your life.

What you need is God in your life.

The author of 1 John was very clear and very explicit about who is born of God, who abides in Christ, who has seen Christ, who knows Christ, etc.
"Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin;"
"Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not"
"whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him"

Those who are "born of God doth not commit sin".
Those who "abideth in him sinneth not".
Those who "sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him".

According to 1 John 3:4-9 who is "born of God"?
According to 1 John 3:4-9 who "abideth in him"?
According to 1 John 3:4-9 who "hath not seen him"?
According to 1 John 3:4-9 who "hath not known him"?

@thinkofone said
What you need is God in your life.

The author of 1 John was very clear and very explicit about who is born of God, who abides in Christ, who has seen Christ, who knows Christ, etc.
"Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin;"
"Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not"
"whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him"

Those who are "born of God doth n ...[text shortened]... ording to 1 John 3:4-9 who "hath not seen him"?
According to 1 John 3:4-9 who "hath not known him"?

The whole Bible agrees with itself, one part of it is not going to be in conflict with another part of it. In your case you cannot even keep it straight looking at a single book. Jesus said told us we are to forgive those who wronged us, He even said if we don't forgive we will not be forgiven it was so important. Your doctrine rules that out completely, the text isn't what your claiming. God's grace is for those who ask Him for it calling on Jesus Christ, those who then give it to others, and those that don't abuse it by living a life of sin without repentance as discussed by your text.

While your doctrine is sin once your out.

1 John 1 English Standard Version
If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.
Why do you NEVER say why this isn't true? It doesn't agree with your message.


Luke 17 English Standard Version
Pay attention to yourselves! If your brother sins, rebuke him, and if he repents, forgive him, and if he sins against you seven times in the day, and turns to you seven times, saying, ‘I repent,’ you must forgive him.”
If God is telling us to forgive those of us who have been sinned against, why according to your doctrine doesn't He forgive us when we ask?

@kellyjay said
The whole Bible agrees with itself, one part of it is not going to be in conflict with another part of it. In your case you cannot even keep it straight looking at a single book. Jesus said told us we are to forgive those who wronged us, He even said if we don't forgive we will not be forgiven it was so important. Your doctrine rules that out completely, the text isn't what ...[text shortened]... who have been sinned against, why according to your doctrine doesn't He forgive us when we ask?[/b]

My doctrine? I keep putting forth 1 John 3:4-9. As such what I keep putting forth is the doctrine of the author of 1 John. Can you at least acknowledge that fact, so that we can move on and I can address the other points of your post?

@thinkofone said
My doctrine? I keep putting forth 1 John 3:4-9. As such what I keep putting forth is the doctrine of the author of 1 John. Can you at least acknowledge that fact, so that we can move on and I can address the other points of your post?

No, you own this doctrine it isn't John's, because he wrote the whole book of 1 John not just those 6 verses which you are perverting.

@thinkofone said
My doctrine? I keep putting forth 1 John 3:4-9. As such what I keep putting forth is the doctrine of the author of 1 John. Can you at least acknowledge that fact, so that we can move on and I can address the other points of your post?

Nothing is stopping you from addressing anything I've been say, I've actually have been crying that the only thing you do is repeat yourself. Actually addressing other points would be a very nice change.

@kellyjay said
Nothing is stopping you from addressing anything I've been say, I've actually have been crying that the only thing you do is repeat yourself. Actually addressing other points would be a very nice change.

You're the one who framed it as "your doctrine". You're the one who created this straw man. Why do you play those games? It would be a very nice change if you ceased to do so.

Nothing is stopping you from acknowledging the fact that what I keep putting forth is 1 John 3:4-9 and it is the doctrine of the author of 1 John.

If you refuse to show that you can be reasonable by acknowledging that fact, then there's no point in trying to explain anything to you.

@ThinkOfOne

The author of 1 John was very clear and very explicit about who is born of God, who abides in Christ, who has seen Christ

Is the author also very clear and very explicit about Jesus Christ the Righteous being the propitiation for the sins of the world?

"And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for those of the whole world." (2:2)

What happens to "very clear and very explicit" when it comes to verses that negate your atheist / humanist Christology ?

@sonship said
@ThinkOfOne

The author of 1 John was very clear and very explicit about who is born of God, who abides in Christ, who has seen Christ

Is the author also very clear and very explicit about Jesus Christ the Righteous being the propitiation for the sins of the world?

[b]"And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for ...[text shortened]... ear and very explicit"[/i] when it comes to verses that negate your atheist / humanist Christology ?

Is the author also very clear and very explicit about Jesus Christ the Righteous being the propitiation for the sins of the world?

Yes he is.

It's really simple jaywill:
I advocate for the gospel preached by Jesus while He walked the Earth.
Passages such as 1 John 3:4-9 are consistent with the gospel preached by Jesus while He walked the Earth.
The verse you cited is not.

People like KJ claim that the entirety of the Bible is "the inerrant word of God" and insist that they embrace all of it. The reality is that they reject passages such as 1 John 3:4-9 whilst claiming that they don't. They lack the integrity to admit it.

@thinkofone said
You're the one who framed it as "your doctrine". You're the one who created this straw man. Why do you play those games? It would be a very nice change if you ceased to do so.

Nothing is stopping you from acknowledging the fact that what I keep putting forth is 1 John 3:4-9 and it is the doctrine of the author of 1 John.

If you refuse to show that you can be reasonable by acknowledging that fact, then there's no point in trying to explain anything to you.

The scriptures will agree with themselves; the Word of God is always in agreement with itself. Your interpretation is yours alone, the error is not the authors of the scripture, but your interpretation of it, your doctrine. Don't you even preach against some of the authors of some of the books of the Bible? Pitting your description of truth above the Bible's scripture as you see it?

@kellyjay said
The scriptures will agree with themselves; the Word of God is always in agreement with itself. Your interpretation is yours alone, the error is not the authors of the scripture, but your interpretation of it, your doctrine. Don't you even preach against some of the authors of some of the books of the Bible? Pitting your description of truth above the Bible's scripture as you see it?

Though I've given you chance after chance, you have shown that you are unable to engage in reasoned discussion about 1 John 3:4-9.

Your refusal to acknowledge the fact that what I keep putting forth is 1 John 3:4-9 and that it is the doctrine of the author of 1 John clinches it.

@thinkofone said
Though I've given you chance after chance, you have shown that you are unable to engage in reasoned discussion about 1 John 3:4-9.

Your refusal to acknowledge the fact that what I keep putting forth is 1 John 3:4-9 and that it is the doctrine of the author of 1 John clinches it.

The one truth about scripture any believer who studies it knows, God is not the author of confusion, and His Word is not conflicted with itself. Your doctrine promotes both confusion and conflict with other scripture; therefore, your doctrine isn't of God; it is quite simple.

You never addressed the examples given to you that showed you how your doctrine does not fit with the rest of that book or the rest of the Bible. Repeating the same error in interpretation is not a persuasively strong argument style, but because you were unable to do more than that should be telling!

I have engaged with you, I gave you how you were wrong by showing the opening of that chapter doesn't fit with your interpretation, I gave you a list of scriptures that all showed how you are doing it is in error, and I gave you a list of other scriptures that showed you what scripture in that book would be in conflict with your interpretation, and I pointed out to you how Jesus told us to act with forgiveness and how we are to as well, which would be also be mute if you were right, but your not.

If you refuse to even see our discussion how it was, and how all other text goes against your personal interpretation to promote and yourself, there isn't anything that I think anyone can say to you that you can receive.

@kellyjay said
The one truth about scripture any believer who studies it knows, God is not the author of confusion, and His Word is not conflicted with itself. Your doctrine promotes both confusion and conflict with other scripture; therefore, your doctrine isn't of God; it is quite simple.

You never addressed the examples given to you that showed you how your doctrine does not fit wit ...[text shortened]... promote and yourself, there isn't anything that I think anyone can say to you that you can receive.

If you refuse to even see our discussion how it was, and how all other text goes against your personal interpretation to promote and yourself, there isn't anything that I think anyone can say to you that you can receive.

You're so full of it KJ.

1 John 3:4-9 says what it says. And you know full well that it says what it says. If you didn't, you wouldn't have objected to my first post which contained only the text from 1 John 3:4-9. Absolutely nothing else. No commentary from me whatsoever. How can posting what 1 John 3:4-9 says reasonably be called "[my] interpretation", my "personal interpretation", etc.?

You have no intellectual honesty whatsoever. You have no integrity whatsoever. You're an exceedingly dishonest person.

@ThinkOfOne

I advocate for the gospel preached by Jesus while He walked the Earth.
Passages such as 1 John 3:4-9 are consistent with the gospel preached by Jesus while He walked the Earth.
The verse you cited is not.

No you do not preach the Gospel of Christ.

No one can even clearly get you to admit that you believe in God.
And you oppose Christ as the propitiation and Christ as the resurrected One, Forget about Christ as the indwelling Holy Spirit.

You oppose all of those vital truths of the Bible.

The Apostle John -

"And He [Christ] Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for those of the whole world." (1 John 2:2)

Christ in Luke -

"And similarly the cup after they had dined, saying, This cup is the new covenant established in My blood, which is being poured out for you." (Luke 22:20)

Christ in Matthew

"And He took a cup and gave thanks, And He gave it to them, saying, Drink of it, all of you. For this is My blood of the covenant, which is being poured out for many for forgiveness of sins." (Matt. 26:27,28)

@thinkofone said
If you refuse to even see our discussion how it was, and how all other text goes against your personal interpretation to promote and yourself, there isn't anything that I think anyone can say to you that you can receive.

You're so full of it KJ.

1 John 3:4-9 says what it says. And you know full well that it says what it says. If you didn't, you wouldn't have o ...[text shortened]... ectual honesty whatsoever. You have no integrity whatsoever. You're an exceedingly dishonest person.

Do you copy and paste, or actually type your interpretation of just those 6 verses each time?