20 Apr 17
Originally posted by robbie carrobieI am unaware of anyone who disputes the fact that the Bible was written by men; it is you who has made the claim that it was inspired by a supernatural being. All religions ~ including Judaism, Islam and Christianity, and others too ~ serve a purpose as frameworks for social and moral order, and their scriptures lay out the rules and folklore that support these cultural and religious arrangements; again, I am unaware of anyone who disputes this.
You believe the Bible was written by men for political purposes. Where is your proof?
Originally posted by FMFI am asking you to provide a burden of proof that it was written for political purposes. This is your claim is it not?
I am unaware of anyone who disputes the fact that the Bible was written by men; it is you who has made the claim that it was inspired by a supernatural being. All religions ~ including Judaism, Islam and Christianity, and others too ~ serve a purpose as frameworks for social and moral order, and their scriptures lay out the rules and folklore that support these cultural and religious arrangements; again, I am unaware of anyone who disputes this.
All religions ~ including Judaism, Islam and Christianity, and others too ~ serve a purpose as frameworks for social and moral order, and their scriptures lay out the rules and folklore that support these cultural and religious arrangements
Is this your proof?
What are we to make of the FACT that Christ himself would not become embroiled in political struggles and stated that he and his followers were 'no part of the world' including the worlds political institutions. What are we to make of the historical fact that NO first century Christian held political office or joined the army? see Gibbons.
You do realise that these facts make an absolute mockery of your claim that the Bible was written for political purposes and may infact refute it outright.
For some strange reason you don't seem so comfortable when you are asked to provide a burden of proof for your claims, do you.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieWell the Bible lays out rules that underpin a particular social and moral order. If you don't think the purpose of the Bible is to establish a framework for social and moral order by way of a set of rules and beliefs, then you should just come out and say so.
I am asking you to provide a burden of proof that it was written for political purposes. This is your claim is it not?
All religions ~ including Judaism, Islam and Christianity, and others too ~ serve a purpose as frameworks for social and moral order, and their scriptures lay out the rules and folklore that support these cultural and religious ...[text shortened]... n't seem so comfortable when you are asked to provide a burden of proof for your claims, do you.
Originally posted by FMFI am asking you provide proof that it was written for political purposes, nothing you have said even addresses that. If you cannot get the question correct what hope is there for you to answer correctly. Either that or you have rather broad view of what constitutes political purposes.
Well the Bible lays out rules that underpin a particular social and moral order. If you don't think the purpose of the Bible is to establish a framework for social and moral order by way of a set of rules and beliefs, then you should just come out and say so.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieThe setting of rules, power, authority, punishment, order, laws, a sanctioned history and legacy, in order to regulate individuals within a society etc. This is quite clearly what the Bible is about. And it's indisputably the realm of small p politics.
I am asking you provide proof that it was written for political purposes, nothing you have said even addresses that. If you cannot get the question correct what hope is there for you to answer correctly.
Originally posted by FMFI see, therefore when I set rules regarding my household that all children should be in bed by eight o'Clock I am engaging in politics by seeking to exercise my authority as their father and regulate their behaviour. Not only that anyone who seeks to regulate behaviour or exercise their authority in anyway is engaging in a political purpose. Is that correct? A behavioural therapist would be infact if we take your definition forward a politician.
The setting of rules, power, authority, punishment, order, laws, a sanctioned history and legacy, in order to regulate individuals within a society etc. This is quite clearly what the Bible is about. And it's indisputably the realm of small p politics.
Originally posted by FMFLets ask you about Christs statement that he and his followers were to be 'no part of the world' or its political institutions and did not hold any civil or political office. How are we to reconcile this with your claim that the Bible was written for political purposes because clearly it doesn't make any sense.
The setting of rules, power, authority, punishment, order, laws, a sanctioned history and legacy, in order to regulate individuals within a society etc. This is quite clearly what the Bible is about. And it's indisputably the realm of small p politics.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieThe Bible, OT and NT, set rules for the Hebrew people - the nation of Israel - and then for Christendom. I believe this was in order to establish a specific social and moral order and that this was recorded and defined by the Bible. I don't think it's controversial to claim that this was the Bible's purpose. If there is a particular post of mine - that you can quote verbatim - where I used the expression "political purpose" in a way that has confused you, then copy paste it here.
I see, therefore when I set rules regarding my household that all children should be in bed by eight o'Clock I am engaging in politics by seeking to exrecise my authority and regulate their behaviour. Not only that anyone who seeks to regulate behaviour in anyway is engaging in a political purpose. Is that correct? a behavioural therapist would be infact if we take your definition forward a politician.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieIf you don't think the setting of a system of laws and punishments to regulate and keep order in society is part of the political domain, then so be it.
How are we to reconcile this with your claim that the Bible was written for political purposes because clearly it doesn't make any sense.
Originally posted by FMFWhether you think it controversial or not is neither here nor there and your entire argument seems to hinge on the broadest definition of political purpose that I have ever heard. NGO charities like Bernardo's who help families and children would be considered a political entity under such a broad umbrella, Are you really asking us to believe that?
The Bible, OT and NT, set rules for the Hebrew people - the nation of Israel - and then for Christendom. I believe this was in order to establish a specific social and moral order and that this was recorded and defined by the Bible. I don't think it's controversial to claim that this was the Bible's purpose. If there is a particular post of mine - that you can q ...[text shortened]... used the expression "political purpose" in a way that has confused you, then copy paste it here.
Originally posted by FMFI am asking you about Christ statement and the fact that no first century Christian held public office and how we are to reconcile this to your claim that the Bible was written for political purposes. it simply does not make any sense, sorry and nothing you have said seems able to reconcile it.
If you don't think the setting of a system of laws and punishments to regulate and keep order in society is part of the political domain, then so be it.