How about the account of Abraham?
Gen 17:1-8
When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the Lord appeared to him and said, "I am God Almighty; walk before me and be blameless. 2 I will confirm my covenant between me and you and will greatly increase your numbers."
3 Abram fell facedown, and God said to him, 4 "As for me, this is my covenant with you: You will be the father of many nations. 5 No longer will you be called Abram; your name will be Abraham, for I have made you a father of many nations. 6 I will make you very fruitful; I will make nations of you, and kings will come from you. 7 I will establish my covenant as an everlasting covenant between me and you and your descendants after you for the generations to come, to be your God and the God of your descendants after you. 8 The whole land of Canaan, where you are now an alien, I will give as an everlasting possession to you and your descendants after you; and I will be their God."
NIV
This kind of historically verifiable prophecy is one of the reasons that you can know the Bible is true. The Bible is the only holy book with any clear and unmistakable prophecy that has been shown in history to come true. Unlike the Greek oracles which were so obscure that they had to be fit to the facts after the event, the Bible says over and over—in very clear language—what will happen in the future, but that future is past to us today so we can verify the prophecy. Who would have thought that about 4000 years ago a man with a barren wife would become so numerous and so famous that the majority of the people on planet earth knew his name? Only the true God can foretell like that.
There are many more accounts and prophecies in the bible that have already come to pass.
Originally posted by checkbaiterAre verses (7) and (8) about the Christians or are they about the Jews who, lest we forget, see Jesus as an impostor and false and damaging messiah?
(7) I will establish my covenant as an everlasting covenant between me and you and your descendants after you for the generations to come, to be your God and the God of your descendants after you. (8) The whole land of Canaan, where you are now an alien, I will give as an everlasting possession to you and your descendants after you; and I will be their God."
Originally posted by checkbaiterMy question: "Are verses (7) and (8) about the Christians or are they about the Jews who, lest we forget, see Jesus as an impostor and false and damaging messiah?" is an obvious point.
You, not surprisingly, avoid the obvious point and come back with sarcasm and belittle Jews and the word of God.
Are you going to simply sidestep it?
Originally posted by checkbaiterCan you verify the date that this supposed 'prophecy' was made? No you cannot. Can you verify that god spoke to this man at all? No you cannot. Does it stand as evidence that the bible is divinely inspired? Only to those who already hold this belief. The Iliad also contains prophecies which are shown to be accurate later in the book; these things are just plot devices.
How about the account of Abraham?
[b]Gen 17:1-8
When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the Lord appeared to him and said, "I am God Almighty; walk before me and be blameless. 2 I will confirm my covenant between me and you and will greatly increase your numbers."
3 Abram fell facedown, and God said to him, 4 "As for me, this is my covenant with you ...[text shortened]... that.
There are many more accounts and prophecies in the bible that have already come to pass.
Originally posted by checkbaiterWhat sarcasm?
You, not surprisingly, avoid the obvious point and come back with sarcasm and belittle Jews and the word of God.
Here is part of your supposed prophecy:
"I will establish my covenant as an everlasting covenant between me and you and your descendants after you for the generations to come, to be your God and the God of your descendants after you. 8 The whole land of Canaan, where you are now an alien, I will give as an everlasting possession to you and your descendants after you; and I will be their God."
Are you contending that your god figure prophesized that "the whole land of Canaan" would be given to a religious group that does not believe in Jesus?
A couple of hundred years before Christ came and the subsequent Gospels existed, the translation of the Hebrew Scriptures into Greek - Septuagint already contained a translation of the prophet Micah.
"It was in this period [during the reign of Ptolemy II Philadelphus (285-246 BC) ]
that the Hebrew Old Testament was being translated into Greek, the first time it had ever been extensively translated. The leaders of Alexandrian Jewery had a standard Greek version produced which is known as the Septuagint (LXX), the Greek word for "seventy"; it was undoubtedly translated during the third and /or second centuries B.C.; it is purported to have been written as early as the time of Ptolemy Philadelphus in a Letter of Aristeas to Philocartes (c. 130-100 B.C)"
[ A General Introduction to the Bible, Giesler and Nix, Moody, pg 307 ]
This portion was inserted from a previous paragraph on the page.
[during the reign of Ptolemy II Philadelphus (285-246 BC) ]
The point is that Micah's prophecy was not after the fact of the birth of Jesus.
I am told Micah lived and ministered about 750-710 BC at the time of Hosea and Isaiah, two other Hebrew prophets.
We should accept as legitimate that it was written in Hebrew and in Greek a couple of centuries before the birth of Jesus that a born king of some divine origin was foretold to come out of Bethlehem.
Neither Hollywood nor Jews for Jesus or some other 21 century folks concocted a fabricated prophecy. No, Jesus was not born FIRST and THEN the ancients or anyone else invented a Micah prophecy to legitimize this extraordinary Person.
Micah chapter 5 would not have shown up in the Septuagint had it been fabricated after the lifespan of Jesus.
Originally posted by FMFI think you know the answer, you are the one side stepping the obvious point...
My question: "Are verses (7) and (8) about the Christians or are they about the Jews who, lest we forget, see Jesus as an impostor and false and damaging messiah?" [b]is an obvious point.
Are you going to simply sidestep it?[/b]
Who would have thought that about 4000 years ago a man with a barren wife would become so numerous and so famous that the majority of the people on planet earth knew his name? Only the true God can foretell like that.
Originally posted by checkbaiterYou honestly think the stuff you quoted was written 4,000 years ago?
I think you know the answer, you are the one side stepping the obvious point...
[b] Who would have thought that about 4000 years ago a man with a barren wife would become so numerous and so famous that the majority of the people on planet earth knew his name? Only the true God can foretell like that.[/b]
Originally posted by sonshipMIcah's prophecy does not refer to a king of 'divine origin', it refers to a man of a particular family whose origin is Bethlehem who will 'come unto' god and become a leader of Israel (same family as David, surprise surprise). It's a very uncomfortable fit as a prophecy of the birth of Jesus. I am surprised that you are not already aware of this.
A couple of hundred years before Christ came and the subsequent Gospels existed, the translation of the Hebrew Scriptures into Greek - [b]Septuagint already contained a translation of the prophet Micah.
[quote] "It was in this period [during the reign of Ptolemy II Philadelphus (285-246 BC) ]
that the Hebrew Old Testament was being transla ...[text shortened]... b] would not have shown up in the Septuagint had it been fabricated after the lifespan of Jesus.[/b]