Originally posted by no1marauder
The Framers were careful in their language. People were endowed with "certain unalienable Rights". Governments, by contrast, "deriv[ed] their just powers from the consent of the governed". It's sloppy terminology to say that States have "rights" and the Framers would not have agreed.
Rights and powers tend to overlap, one resulting in the other. Ok, I can live with powers, but it really doesn't change the argument. If that be the case, the Federal government has no rights either only powers given it by the Constitution, and its partners in power the States and the people.