Originally posted by no1marauderWould you care to proffer a workable definition of theft?
I have refuted your first paragraph by links and articles many times on this board. Agriculture did, and does, make plenty of sense with communal ownership of land and that was the standard type in early villages. In fact, private ownership of land was unknown in most ancient empires. The evidence indicates that hunter gatherers lived better than the ave ...[text shortened]... Governments created private property; they weren't created to protect private property.
Originally posted by normbenignAnother "holding your breath until you turn blue" post. The scientific disciplines of anthropology and archaeology and the social science of history exist even if you wish to ignore their findings.
I've read all your links and articles and they remain unconvincing for reasons that I have articulated in the past.
How do we know the living conditions of primitive hunter\gatherer societies or rather tribes. No on denies the effectiveness of cooperation, and without it humans would have had difficulty surviving at all. What none of this shows is th ...[text shortened]... people's money, which would not have been there to be spent without private property rights.
The type of collectivism humans engaged in was hardly "coerced"; in fact as the article points out hunter gatherers can't really be coerced into doing anything. Coercion enters into the human experience on a societal level only with the advent of unelected "chiefs" who then created the concept of "private property" with which they and their cronies could confiscate things they did not create.
EDIT: From the link provided:
Hunter-gatherers could have created the institution of private property if they wanted to.
All hunter-gatherers are free to leave the band and to start their own band with whoever wants to
join. If 6 to 10 adult hunter-gatherers recognize the hunter’s natural right to exclusive ownership
over the kill, no one would have interfered with them. Yet, all known hunter-gatherers (in all
climates and geographies) exercised their free will to treat property collectively.
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Where's the "coerced collectivism" you are babbling about?
EDIT2: The progressive reforms enabled those who actually did the work to acquire enough income and wealth so that a broad based consumer economy could be developed rather than one where the vast majority lived in squalor while a few reaped the benefits of their toil.
Originally posted by normbenignThen your example about farmers is irrelevant.
"Private property is a legal concept in which land is owned by someone other than the farmer."
And what if the private property isn't farm land? Private property could be anything unused and undeveloped, which is developed for use by human effort.