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What if time runs backwards?

What if time runs backwards?

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Originally posted by twhitehead
Because of the illusion we customarily refer to one direction as the past with a beginning and the other direction as the future and an end. Surely that is obvious?
Hmm yes but shouldn't it influence how we perceive the question 'why?'?

edit. Is 'why?' even a valid scientific question?

For example, can we ever truly answer using science the most basic
of queestions. Why do we dream?

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Originally posted by Thequ1ck
Hmm yes but shouldn't it influence how we perceive the question 'why?'?

edit. Is 'why?' even a valid scientific question?
Of course it influences it. Yes, 'why' is a valid scientific question, but we should remember to keep the future as well as the past in mind when answering it.

For example, can we ever truly answer using science the most basic
of queestions. Why do we dream?

I really don't see how that question is really relevant at all. The question is not 'basic' but rather far to complex to answer without staying firmly within our illusion.

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If anyone questions whether time can actually run backward, all they would have to do is read this thread to get absolute proof!

Please let's get back to the main point!

Now, try to think of one.

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Originally posted by coquette
If anyone questions whether time can actually run backward, all they would have to do is read this thread to get absolute proof!

Please let's get back to the main point!

Now, try to think of one.
Not really sure what notion you're trying to emit?

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In am not an astromenor / physicist, so this might be a dumb question.

If the Universe is closed, and starts to fall into itself (starts collapsing) after maximum expansion has been achieved, will time run backwards?

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Originally posted by znsho
In am not an astromenor / physicist, so this might be a dumb question.

If the Universe is closed, and starts to fall into itself (starts collapsing) after maximum expansion has been achieved, will time run backwards?
No, the illusion of the direction of time is not directly a consequence of expansion - as far as I know.

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Originally posted by twhitehead
No, the illusion of the direction of time is not directly a consequence of expansion - as far as I know.
If so, then the collapse may not be an EXACT reversal of the expansion.

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Originally posted by znsho
If so, then the collapse may not be an EXACT reversal of the expansion.
Even if time did run backwards, the collapse would still not be an exact reversal of the expansion.
Having thought about it though I wonder what would happen to the Second Law of thermodynamics as it would almost certainly get violated as some point in the collapse. Since the Second Law is responsible for the time illusion it would be interesting to know what effects this would have.

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Originally posted by twhitehead
Even if time did run backwards, the collapse would still not be an exact reversal of the expansion.
Having thought about it though I wonder what would happen to the Second Law of thermodynamics as it would almost certainly get violated as some point in the collapse. Since the Second Law is responsible for the time illusion it would be interesting to know what effects this would have.
How can there be a reversal of heat death?

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Originally posted by Thequ1ck
What are the implications?
If time runs backwards, there is only one conclusion: we're on the Enterprise and going faster than c in an attempt to slingshot ourselves around the sun, thus placing us in time warp.😉

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Time could be only a figment of our imagination...

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Originally posted by jman566
Time could be only a figment of our imagination...
I have sometimes considered that possibility.
Although I don’t totally rule out the possibility, what could possibly be causing us to stubbornly imagine time as if it exists when no time exists?

And if time is just a figment of our imagination then, presumably, it would be meaningless to talk about the “temporal ordering of events“? (because there wouldn’t be such thing as “temporal”! ) -if so, then what is causing us to perceive one event coming “before” or “after” another when there is no such thing as “before” or “after” in the temporal sense!?

-and, what is causing us to perceive some events as being in the “past” while other events that are predicted to “about” to occur in the “future” and “then” (the “then” implies time) some of those predicted events to “about” to occur in the “future” to perceived to actually occur because that possible future is “then” perceived to become the present/past?

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Originally posted by Andrew Hamilton
I have sometimes considered that possibility.
Although I don’t totally rule out the possibility, what could possibly be causing us to stubbornly imagine time as if it exists when no time exists?
The time dimension exists (at least as much as the spacial dimensions).
The arrow of time however is an illusion.
The configuration of the universe at a point in time (eg now) tells us about all possible past and all possible future universes.
Due to a quirk in the laws of physics, the possible past universes are relatively few when compared to the possible future universes. This gives the illusion that the past is fixed and the future is open.
If the current state of the universe could give us an accurate picture of its state tomorrow we would not have a problem talking about 'remembering' tomorrow.

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Originally posted by twhitehead
The time dimension exists (at least as much as the spacial dimensions).
The arrow of time however is an illusion.
The configuration of the universe at a point in time (eg now) tells us about all possible past and all possible future universes.
Due to a quirk in the laws of physics, the possible past universes are relatively few when compared to the pos ...[text shortened]... icture of its state tomorrow we would not have a problem talking about 'remembering' tomorrow.

Due to a quirk in the laws of physics, the possible PAST universes are relatively few when compared to the possible FUTURE universes.
..…
(my emphasis)

But if the laws of physics make the possible PAST universes relatively few in number when compared to the possible FUTURE universes, doesn’t that imply that the laws of physics discriminate between “PAST” and “FUTURE”? and, if so, would that discriminate between “PAST” and “FUTURE” the laws of physics make mean, at least in some sense, the “arrow of time” is non-illusionary? -I mean, if the “arrow of time” is illusionary, wouldn’t you expect the laws of physics to NOT discriminate between “PAST” and “FUTURE”?

-so far these are my thoughts on it although I am not sure if I may have made a subtle misunderstanding here because I don’t really understand the true nature of time (trying to get to grips with relativity at university pretty much convinced me so).

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