Originally posted by RBHILLWrong, she would be commiting adultery based on the laws of Moses.
Matthew 1:25a
Joseph had no union with her until she gave birth to a son.
Joseph knew that too, that was why he was going to separate quietly until the Angel stepped in.
Sometimes i really wonder RB why the Christain churches don't take more time to study more.
Originally posted by PudgenikI know the Bible said and I just gave the verse. And before that verse I gave it says he took her as his wife but had no sex/union with her until the baby was born!
Wrong, she would be commiting adultery based on the laws of Moses.
Joseph knew that too, that was why he was going to separate quietly until the Angel stepped in.
Sometimes i really wonder RB why the Christain churches don't take more time to study more.
Read verses 20b & 25a
Matthew 1:20-25
New Living Translation (NLT)
20 As he considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream. “Joseph, son of David,” the angel said, “do not be afraid to take Mary as your wife. For the child within her was conceived by the Holy Spirit. 21 And she will have a son, and you are to name him Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.”
22 All of this occurred to fulfill the Lord’s message through his prophet:
23 “Look! The virgin will conceive a child!
She will give birth to a son,
and they will call him Immanuel,
which means ‘God is with us.’”
24 When Joseph woke up, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded and took Mary as his wife. 25 But he did not have sexual relations with her until her son was born. And Joseph named him Jesus.
Originally posted by RBHILLJoseph could never have intercourse with Mary. The laws of Moses would forbid such a thing.
I know the Bible said and I just gave the verse. And before that verse I gave it says he took her as his wife but had no sex/union with her until the baby was born!
In the same way that Jesus gave the keys of the kingdom to Peter. God told the Isrealites that He would also abide by the same laws He gave to Moses.
Based on the Laws of Moses, when two are joined by God they become one in Him. And it states, "let no man come between them" . The only way Joseph would be able to legally consimate his marrage to Mary would be if God the Father died.
Originally posted by PudgenikThe word declares he (Joseph) married her. Mary was not married to God.
Joseph could never have intercourse with Mary. The laws of Moses would forbid such a thing.
In the same way that Jesus gave the keys of the kingdom to Peter. God told the Isrealites that He would also abide by the same laws He gave to Moses.
Based on the Laws of Moses, when two are joined by God they become one in Him. And it states, "let no man com ...[text shortened]... y Joseph would be able to legally consimate his marrage to Mary would be if God the Father died.
Originally posted by Grampy BobbyGambiteer 1
Genesis 1:1 "In the OP..."
1 In the OP, SwissGambit created the thread that was to revolutionize the Spirituality Forum. 2 Now the forum was without interesting posts, and void of participation. And darkness was over the hands of the potential typists. And the spirit of Russ hovered over the website.