God's Will?

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
This appears to be at odds with robbie's suggestion that the Mosaic Law ought no longer to be valid

Hardly!

When Christ was alive he often instructed others to obey the Law. When he healed a man of leprosy he instructed him to go and present himself to the priests, in accordance with the law.

However when Christ died and offered up his life ...[text shortened]... is no incongruity with what I have said and the actions of the Christ while he was still alive.

I'm certain your knowledge of the Bible is superior to my own. Where in the Bible does it say that the OT laws (including the Ten Commandments, of course) are no longer valid?

Originally posted by KazetNagorra
I'm certain your knowledge of the Bible is superior to my own. Where in the Bible does it say that the OT laws (including the Ten Commandments, of course) are no longer valid?

http://biblehub.com/colossians/2-14.htm

Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross - Colossians 2:14

This reference 'handwriting of ordinances', is a reference to the law and if you look at the original Greek, literally means commandments. You can discern that it was blotted out, nullified when Christ gave up his life or as this verse translates it, 'nailed to the cross'.

Paul also makes reference in the book of Hebrews I think and reasons why the law with its ordinances was temporary.

see also : http://biblehub.com/ephesians/2-15.htm

He did this by ending the system of law with its commandments and regulations. He made peace between Jews and Gentiles by creating in himself one new people from the two groups. - New living translation

Originally posted by divegeester
Please explain using biblical scripture, what the "law of liberty" is. Thanks.

What is the law of liberty?

http://www.gotquestions.org/law-of-liberty.html

The post that was quoted here has been removed

God's will is this: 1 Timothy 2:3,4

For this [is] good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour;
Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.

Invoking the law is a matter for civil authority. God isn't presiding over any particular government in the world today. Adultery was punishable by death under the law when God was dealing with Israel thousands of years ago as a means of preserving a moral society. God is not sanctioning the death penalty for adultery today, but governing institutions can.

From what I've seen the stonings going on in Islamic countries are as barbaric and unjust as was the stoning Jesus interrupted of the woman accused of adultery. Where was the man that was caught in the act with the woman?

The post that was quoted here has been removed

John 8:3-5
And the scribes and Pharisees brought unto him a woman taken in adultery; and when they had set her in the midst,
They say unto him, Master, this woman was taken in adultery, in the very act.
Now Moses in the law commanded us, that such should be stoned: but what sayest thou?

This is what I was referring to. The woman "was taken in adultery, in the very act", but where was the man that was "taken" "in the very act" with her?

I find the justice of man to be unjust indeed. Stoning a woman for adultery in this age is a merciless and barbaric act of cowardice by hyper-religious fools.

Originally posted by josephw
Stoning a woman for adultery in this age is a merciless and barbaric act of cowardice by hyper-religious fools.

Unlike you, I think it always was "a merciless and barbaric act of cowardice by hyper-religious fools", unless you happen to think it was somehow 'merciful', 'civilized' and 'courageous' and carried out by 'wise religious men' as depicted in your OT literature... do you?

Originally posted by FMF
Unlike you, I think it always was "a merciless and barbaric act of cowardice by hyper-religious fools", unless you happen to think it was somehow 'merciful', 'civilized' and 'courageous' and carried out by 'wise religious men' as depicted in your OT literature... do you?

I don't recall ever reading of any woman being stoned to death for adultery in the Old Testament. Perhaps the very presence of that law was enough of a deterrent to prevent it.

Originally posted by RJHinds
I don't recall ever reading of any woman being stoned to death for adultery in the Old Testament. Perhaps the very presence of that law was enough of a deterrent to prevent it.

Women have been stoned to death for adultery since time immemorial. It's still going on in some places.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
http://biblehub.com/colossians/2-14.htm

Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross - Colossians 2:14

This reference 'handwriting of ordinances', is a reference to the law and if you look at the original Greek, literally means commandments. You ca ...[text shortened]... and Gentiles by creating in himself one new people from the two groups. - New living translation

I don't read there that OT laws are no longer valid, but hey, I'm not a theologian.

Do you reject the (validity of) Ten Commandments?

Originally posted by KazetNagorra
I don't read there that OT laws are no longer valid, but hey, I'm not a theologian.

Do you reject the (validity of) Ten Commandments?

He did this by ending the system of law with its commandments and regulations. - Ephesians

I don't know how it can be much clearer than that.

The ten so called commandments are part of the Mosaic law and can be encompassed entirely in the law of the Christ, which is 'you must love God and your neighbour as yourself'.

For example, it is not loving to steal, it deprives someone of something. It is not loving to murder, it deprives someone of life. Committing adultery is not loving, its a betrayal and results in broken homes etc.

Thus although the ten commandments and indeed the entire Mosaic law is no longer binding in practice (thats why Christians don't offer up sacrifices for sins, go up to Jerusalem for the passover etc etc), they are encompassed entirely in the Law of the Christ, 'you must love your God and your neighbour as yourself' and remain in principle.

The post that was quoted here has been removed

What does ISIS have to do with OT law?

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
He did this by ending the system of law with its commandments and regulations. - Ephesians

I don't know how it can be much clearer than that.

The ten so called commandments are part of the Mosaic law and can be encompassed entirely in the law of the Christ, which is 'you must love God and your neighbour as yourself'.

For example, it is not ...[text shortened]... of the Christ, 'you must love your God and your neighbour as yourself' and remain in principle.

Why do you think the New Testament simultaneously says all OT laws are still valid and all of them are invalid?

Originally posted by KazetNagorra
Why do you think the New Testament simultaneously says all OT laws are still valid and all of them are invalid?

I have said nothing of the sort. What I have actually said is that they are no longer binding in practice but remain in principle. I even illustrated the concept and demonstrated how that is possible, citing some tenets of the ten commandments and demonstrating how in principle they also transgress the law of Christ.

Originally posted by RJHinds
That was under the Old Covenant and the law of Moses. Christ Jesus brought a New Covenant and the law of liberty.

http://www.letusreason.org/7thAd16.htm

So you CAN cherry pick the bible. Good to know that.