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Originally posted by roigam
If you truly listen to God's Word the Bible, how do you understand
(John 1:18) No man has seen God at any time;
Did men see Jesus? If so, Jesus cannot be God.
If you truly listen to God's Word the Bible, how do you understand
(John 1:18) No man has seen God at any time;
Did men see Jesus?" If so, Jesus cannot be God.
The only begotten Son in the bosom of the Father has declared, manifested and defined God the Father to us.
The rest of that passage says that the Son has declared Him - the God who no man has ever seen -
No one has ever seen God; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.
Since Jesus Christ has declared and manifested God, whom John says no one has ever seen, it is clear that Jesus said to see Him was to see the Father.
" And he who beholds Me beholds Him who sent Me . " (John 12:45)
"Jesus said to him, Have I been so long a time with you, and you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how is it that you say, Show us the Father?" (John 14:9)
You should pray sincerely over these passages this evening. Read them back to God with thanksgiving and praise, not analyzing but saying "Amen" and thanking God and repenting for being a sinner.
Originally posted by sonshipThe Bible also says Jesus is the image of God. An image is not the real thing and that too proves that no man has seen God. We know Him because we see the image of Him in Christ.If you truly listen to God's Word the Bible, how do you understand
(John 1:18) No man has seen God at any time;
Did men see Jesus?" If so, Jesus cannot be God.
The only begotten Son in the bosom of the Father has declared, manifested and defined God the Father to us.
The rest of that passage says that the Son has declared Him - th ...[text shortened]... raise, not analyzing but saying [b]"Amen" and thanking God and repenting for being a sinner.[/b]
But getting back to the original post, the Bible uses "day" in many ways,i.e.
In prophecy a day is at times used to stand for one year. This can be noted at Ezekiel 4:6: “You must lie upon your right side in the second case, and you must carry the error of the house of Judah forty days. A day for a year, a day for a year, is what I have given you.”—See also Nu 14:34.
The term “day(s)” is also used with reference to a time period contemporaneous with a particular person, as for example, “the days of Noah” and “the days of Lot.”—Lu 17:26-30; Isa 1:1.
Other cases where the word “day” is used in a flexible or figurative sense are: “the day of God’s creating Adam".
This flexible use of the word “day” to express units of time of varying length is clearly evident in the Genesis account of creation. Therein is set forth a week of six creative days followed by a seventh day of rest.
In the Scriptural record the account of each of the six creative days concludes with the statement: “And there came to be evening and there came to be morning” a first, second, third, fourth, fifth, and sixth day. (Ge 1:5, 8, 13, 19, 23, 31)
The seventh day, however, does not have this ending, indicating that this period, during which God has been resting from his creative works toward the earth, continued on. At Hebrews 4:1-10 the apostle Paul indicated that God’s rest day was still continuing in his generation, and that was more than 4,000 years after that seventh-day rest period began. This makes it evident that each creative day, or work period, was at least thousands of years in length. As A Religious Encyclopædia (Vol. I, p. 613) observes: “The days of creation were creative days, stages in the process, but not days of twenty-four hours each.”—Edited by P. Schaff, 1894.
The entire period of the six time units or creative “days” dedicated to the preparation of planet Earth is summed up in one all-embracing “day” at Genesis 2:4: “This is a history of the heavens and the earth in the time of their being created, in the day that Jehovah God made earth and heaven.”
To understand judgement day as a 24 hour period does not seem to be accurate.
It is more likely an extended "day" of undefined length.
Also, Matthew 24:36 refers to the time of Jesus' presence as King or parousia.
Again a lengthier day would be more appropriate as he has much to do.
i.e. (Daniel 11:35) And some of those having insight will be made to stumble, in order to do a refining work because of them and to do a cleansing and a whitening until the time of the end; because it is yet for the time appointed.
(Ephesians 5:26) in order that he might sanctify it (the Congregation), cleansing it with the bath of water by means of the word,
(Matthew 24:14) And this good news of the Kingdom will be preached in all the inhabited earth for a witness to all the nations, and then the end will come.
along with other things.
(Psalm 2:6-9) Saying: “I myself have installed my king On Zion, my holy mountain.” 7 Let me proclaim the decree of Jehovah; He said to me: “You are my son; Today I have become your father. 8 Ask of me, and I will give nations as your inheritance And the ends of the earth as your possession. 9 You will break them with an iron scepter, And you will smash them like a piece of pottery.”
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Originally posted by roigamGod became real to me the night I called upon the name of the Lord Jesus to bring me home to Himself.
The Bible also says Jesus is the image of God. An image is not the real thing and that too proves that no man has seen God. We know Him because we see the image of Him in Christ.
But getting back to the original post, the Bible uses "day" in many ways,i.e.
In prophecy a day is at times used to stand for one year. This can be noted at Ezekiel 4:6: “You mu ...[text shortened]... . 9 You will break them with an iron scepter, And you will smash them like a piece of pottery.”
Is God real to you ?
I do not mean can you teach many things about God as objective information. I mean in the intimacy of fellowship - Is God real to you?
Originally posted by Ghost of a DukeI don't believe we are given enough information to determine if the day of Judgement or the day of the Lord is one 24 hour day or simply a period of time, like a year that is used for a day in many prophecies. In the Old Testament we were specifically told to count a day as representing a year in some prophecies. And If we say in Abraham's day or in Noah's day, then we know that what is usually meant is not a specific 24 hour day, but a period of time during the life of those men.
Matthew 24:36
“But concerning that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father only."
Some questions:
Will Judgement day really occur on one day? (Is that feasible to judge all people from all nations, who have ever lived, on one day?!?). Surely the 'day' in judgement day is not meant to be taken li ...[text shortened]... uld only the father know when Judgement day was an not the son; if they are indeed the same God?
In the case of Genesis we are given enough information to know that what is meant is a normal 24 hour day, because each day is numbered and each day has an evening and morning. We are also given an example of how long we are to consider these days to be by the seventh day in which we are to rest after six days of work in rememberance of the creation period of God just like God rested after six days of work. The Sabbath day of rest for the Jews is considered to be 24 hours, beginning at evening and running through the morning and the rest of the day until the beginning of the next day at evening. So we work six 24 hour days, not six thousand or six million years, and rest one 24 hour day, not a thousand or a million years.
However, when Christ returns, it seems pretty clear that He will return on a single day and not over a period of time, like months and years. Sometimes the Lord's day is referring to the day Christ was resurrected. So we must judge what is meant by "day" by the context.
HalleluYaHshua ! Praise the LORD!
Originally posted by robbie carrobieWe have went over this many times and you keep getting amnesia.
The verse is a direct refutation of the pagan trinity doctrine after all its hard to explain how the father knows but the son doesn't if they are the same entity, isn't it.
In Genesis, the word translated God in English is Elohim, which is a plural form. And Elohim says, "Let US make man in Our image." So God is like one family consisting of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. The God family consists of three persons.
In a family the father often knows more than the son, right?
HalleluYaHshua ! Praise the LORD!
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15 May 15
Originally posted by RJHindsThat argument is so weak that i honestly do feel embarrassed on your behalf.
We have went over this many times and you keep getting amnesia.
In Genesis, the word translated God in English is Elohim, which is a plural form. And Elohim says, "Let US make man in Our image." So God is like one family consisting of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. The God family consists of three persons.
In a family the father often knows more than the son, right?
HalleluYaHshua ! Praise the LORD!
Originally posted by Ghost of a DukeIndeed its the type of drivel that a Christian is subjected to again and again.
That argument is so weak that i honestly do feel embarrassed on your behalf.
The Hebrew word ʼelo·himʹ (gods) appears to be from a root meaning “be strong.” ʼElo·himʹ is the plural of ʼelohʹah (god). Sometimes this plural refers to a number of gods (Ge 31:30, 32; 35:2), but more often it is used as a plural of majesty, dignity, or excellence. ʼElo·himʹ is used in the Scriptures with reference to Jehovah himself, to angels, to idol gods (singular and plural), and to men.
When applying to Jehovah, ʼElo·himʹ is used as a plural of majesty, dignity, or excellence. (Ge 1:1) Regarding this, Aaron Ember wrote: “That the language of the O[ld] T[estament] has entirely given up the idea of plurality in . . . [ʼElo·himʹ] (as applied to the God of Israel) is especially shown by the fact that it is almost invariably construed with a singular verbal predicate, and takes a singular adjectival attribute. . . . [ʼElo·himʹ] must rather be explained as an intensive plural, denoting greatness and majesty, being equal to The Great God.”—The American Journal of Semitic Languages and Literatures, Vol. XXI, 1905, p. 208.
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200001729
I have pointed out such nuances of language to Hinds on numerous occasions but one would as well cast a message into a bottle and throw it into the Clyde in the hope that it reaches him, chances are about equal. He cannot even distinguish between a predicate noun and an adjective, what chance does he have?
15 May 15
1 edit
Originally posted by robbie carrobieOne would think that a "master linguist" would understand what he's just been told and would understand the word used. I guess you're not a "master linguist" after all.
Thanks but I have no doubt that Jesus is wonderful - to use that as an attempt to explain why the verse in question is not a refutation of the trinity begs belief and clearly either you are so wired to the moon and incapable of rational thought or you have been indoctrinated to the extent that it prevents you from reasoning logically.
Surprise, surprise.
15 May 15
2 edits
Originally posted by roigamNo man has seen me at anytime either. Man has only seen my image. So what? 😏
The Bible also says Jesus is the image of God. An image is not the real thing and that too proves that no man has seen God. We know Him because we see the image of Him in Christ.
The seventh day, however, does not have this ending, indicating that this period, during which God has been resting from his creative works toward the earth, continued on.
But Jesus responded to them, "My Father is still working, and I am working also."
(John5:17 KJV)
HalleluYaHshua ! Praise the LORD!