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vivify
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Originally posted by Paul Dirac II
The blogger would maintain that a person who suffers economic devastation [will/might not] be abundantly recompensed by God on this Earth depending on whether that person is a member of the [ancient Hebrew tribe/modern church].
There were never such promises for individuals, it was for the Jews as a whole.

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Originally posted by vivify
There were never such promises for individuals, it was for the Jews as a whole.
Maybe that was the intent, but faith healer Ron Dubrul on Christian radio in the 1990s-2000s quoted that scripture many times when taking phone calls from people who were in financial difficulty.

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Originally posted by Paul Dirac II
Maybe that was the intent, but faith healer Ron Dubrul on Christian radio in the 1990s-2000s quoted that scripture many times when taking phone calls from people who were in financial difficulty.
He quoted it out of context. Not uncommon for Christians.

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Since there are no more responses, I guess the whole "who's interpretation thing" is can be put to rest?

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Originally posted by josephw
The story of Lazarus and the rich man is not a parable.
I say it was. It was a story, not fact.

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Originally posted by checkbaiter
I say it was. It was a story, not fact.
If the Apostle Paul was carried away and heard and saw unseen things (whether in body or not he didn't know) would you think it strange that the Son of God be witness to things in other realms ?

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Originally posted by sonship
If the Apostle Paul was carried away and heard and saw unseen things (whether in body or not he didn't know) would you think it strange that the Son of God be witness to things in other realms ?
No, but I believe the bible says it was a story or parable.

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Originally posted by checkbaiter
No, but I believe the bible says it was a story or parable.
It only says - "Now there was a certain rich man, ... etc." (16:19 - 31)

But one might arguably take it as a parable. However, if the teaching in the supposed "parable" of Luke 16:19-31 is wrong, or incorrrect, or not representative what actually can happen, then it seems that Jesus Christ was not righteous to TEACH the meaning of it.

It is a warning to the rich. If the teaching embodied is unrepresentative of what God is able to do, then He was not righteous to teach it. He would be giving a false impression of reality.

1.) Claiming Luke 16:19-31 is completely parabolic is at best speculative but possible.

2.) If its details are fallacious we have to charge Christ with teaching serious falsehood.

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More unclear verses explained...


PEACE WITH GOD

Luke 2:14, "Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace, good will toward men."

LUKE 2:8-20

In another instance, Jesus said He did not come to send peace on the earth, but a sword. Then He prophesied that those who received Him would experience persecution, even from their own family (Mt. 10:34-36). How do these verses fit together?

The peace the angels were singing about was not a peace between men; they were rejoicing that there would be peace between God and man. When Jesus prophesied division and war in Matthew 10, he was speaking of relationships between men.

Through the Old Testament law, God began to release His wrath on man's sin (Rom. 4:15). It wasn't the wrath of Satan that Jesus suffered on the cross.

He suffered the wrath of His Father (Isa. 53:10-12; 2 Cor. 5:21). The Father placed His punishment for our sins on Jesus. This ended the war between God and man. This is the peace that the angels were proclaiming.

As a result of men receiving this peace from God there have also been many cases of reconciliation between men, but that is an effect; not the actual peace that was spoken of. These effects are secondary.

Today, through Jesus, we now have peace with God (Rom. 5:1). God is not mad at us. He isn't even upset. We have been accepted through Jesus (Eph. 1:6).

Believe the good news that through Jesus, the war between God and us is over.

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Originally posted by checkbaiter
Through the Old Testament law, God began to release His wrath on man's sin (Rom. 4:15). It wasn't the wrath of Satan that Jesus suffered on the cross.


The Lord Jesus was on the cross six hours. In the first three hours He indeed suffered from the wrath of man. Starting with the ninth hour the supernatural things began to occur. This signified that in the second three hours He suffered from the wrath of God.

It is at the mid-point of the six hour ordeal that He cried out "My God, My God, Why have you forsaken Me?" (Mark 15:34)

“At three o’clock, Jesus cried out in a loud voice, ‘Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?’ which is translated, ‘My God, my God, why have ...


The darkness over the earth, the tearing of the temple veil from top to the bottom, and the earthquake were all things not in the hands of man but by the power of God.

He suffered firstly from man's hatred for God.
He then suffered secondly for God's hatred for our sins.

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