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Premise: Objective morals do not exist

Premise: Objective morals do not exist

Spirituality

apathist
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western colorado

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25 Oct 17

Originally posted by @dj2becker
What about objective truth? Does it exist?
You have subjectively determined that it does. I'm saying that accepting proclamations of objective truth is a subjective determination. Your wheels are spinning.

JS357

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black beetle
Black Beastie

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25 Oct 17

Originally posted by @dj2becker
You don't know that abiogenesis occurred without an intelligent agent being involved yet you are happy to assume it did. Hypocrisy much?
I never said that. Hypocricity does not exist on my side😵

black beetle
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25 Oct 17

Originally posted by @suzianne
This is not true.

The truth is written on our hearts in the blood of the Most High. Surely we know.

The rub is what we do about it.
There are as many truths as many are the sentient beings that conceive them.
Your truth is that G-d exists, mine is different than yours, both of them truths are strictly mind-depended and none of them is objectively existent.
😵

wolfgang59
Quiz Master

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Originally posted by @dj2becker
My 'rationale' for objective morality is based upon the Bible. The Bible says we cannot add or remove from it, so no it is not.
It's your subjective "objective morality" then.

That must be a lot like subjective morality methinks.

dj2becker

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Originally posted by @black-beetle
"Objective truth" in separation from our strictly grounded on our (proved in practice as true) collective subjectivity as regards "truth", does not exist😵
That's an assumption that you have to make since you also assume that God doesn't exist.

dj2becker

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Originally posted by @black-beetle
Yes😵
That settles it then.

dj2becker

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Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-duke
Yes! (Do you really expect anyone to say no to such a sick question? )

But here's the rub, I can say 'yes' completely void of any belief in a moral law giver. (For reasons given to you at least 20 times).
You agree that a moral standard exists that applies to everyone. How is that possible without a law giver?

dj2becker

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Originally posted by @apathist
You have subjectively determined that it does. I'm saying that accepting proclamations of objective truth is a subjective determination. Your wheels are spinning.
You have subjectively determined that it doesn't. If your statement is subjective it could well be wrong.

dj2becker

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26 Oct 17

Originally posted by @black-beetle
There are as many truths as many are the sentient beings that conceive them.
Your truth is that G-d exists, mine is different than yours, both of them truths are strictly mind-depended and none of them is objectively existent.
😵
If the 'truth' that both them truths are strictly mind-depended and none of them is objectively existent is not objectively true it is a self defeating statement.

Ghost of a Duke

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Originally posted by @dj2becker
You agree that a moral standard exists that applies to everyone. How is that possible without a law giver?
Applies to almost everyone with a developed intelligence based morality (as a consequence of the socialisation process and character development).

But of course, I've told you this many times.

black beetle
Black Beastie

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26 Oct 17

Originally posted by @dj2becker
That's an assumption that you have to make since you also assume that God doesn't exist.
This is false.
Pay attention: You are dead sure that objectivity exists in a mind-independent (independent to the mental activity of the human beings, that is) manner, because you assume that “G-d exists”. However, you repeatedly fail to see it is not properly said that “One is sure as regards X” in a way that is not strictly grounded on one’s mental activity alone under any circumstances. If you hold that “Objectivity exists/ Objective morality exists/ G-d exists because the Scripture says so” etc., etc., you do it strictly on the basis of the products of your mental activity😵

black beetle
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Originally posted by @dj2becker
That settles it then.
It settles it, but not in the absurd way you think it settles it 😵

dj2becker

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Originally posted by @black-beetle
This is false.
Pay attention: You are dead sure that objectivity exists in a mind-independent (independent to the mental activity of the human beings, that is) manner, because you assume that “G-d exists”. However, you repeatedly fail to see it is not properly said that “One is sure as regards X” in a way that is not strictly grounded on one’s mental ...[text shortened]... e says so” etc., etc., you do it strictly on the basis of the products of your mental activity😵
Assuming God doesn't exist and your brain is the product of randomly firing particles, how can you even trust your mental activity?

dj2becker

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Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-duke
Applies to almost everyone with a developed intelligence based morality (as a consequence of the socialisation process and character development).

But of course, I've told you this many times.
When you say 'almost everyone', to whom does it not apply?

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