Originally posted by no1marauderThe bulk of Biblical scholars
How is that less evidence?? The bulk of Biblical scholars don't believe that any of the writers of the Gospels actually knew Jesus, so writings by Socrates "disciples", at least some of whom were his contemporaries, is more evidence, not less.
You're talking about the historico-criticalists, who are by no means the "bulk" of Biblical scholars.
at least some of whom were his contemporaries, is more evidence, not less.
Not necessarily - you need to take into consideration the literary style and conventions of the time. In the case of the 4th cent. BC Greeks, that convention meant that Plato, for instance, could easily put his own words and ideas into Socrates' mouth in his plays (and let's not forget that - all the evidence we have of Socrates from Plato, and possibly the others, are plays).
Originally posted by lucifershammerSo if Socrate goes up in a puff of smoke--does Jesus too?
Not necessarily - you need to take into consideration the literary style and conventions of the time. In the case of the 4th cent. BC Greeks, that convention meant that Plato, for instance, could easily put his own words and ideas into Socrates' mouth in his plays (and let's not forget that - all the evidence we have of Socrates from Plato, and possibly the others, are plays).
Originally posted by Bosse de NageIf Socrates were to go up in a puff of smoke, it wouldn't be based on the current evidence. Some new evidence would have to be discovered to confirm his non-existence.
So if Socrate goes up in a puff of smoke--does Jesus too?
So the answer to your question is - obviously not.
Originally posted by Bosse de NageSorry, forgot to type out the entire argument.
The first part of your answer is good. The second part is unrelated to the first.
If new evidence is discovered proving the non-existence of Socrates - how does that imply the non-existence of Jesus?
That's like saying - based on the evidence so far, BdN and LH are both males. New evidence has come up suggesting BdN is female. Therefore LH is also female. See the logical fallacy?
Originally posted by lucifershammerCripes, LH, you must think I'm an idiot. Of course I see the logical fallacy--my question was designed to point it out!
Sorry, forgot to type out the entire argument.
If new evidence is discovered proving the non-existence of Socrates - how does that imply the non-existence of Jesus?
That's like saying - based on the evidence so far, BdN and LH are both males. New evidence has come up suggesting BdN is female. Therefore LH is also female. See the logical fallacy?
What was the point of your saying that there is supposedly more evidence against Socrates' existence than Jesus? If each case is taken on its merits, Socrates is perfectly irrelevant to the Jesus incident.
Originally posted by Bosse de NageCripes, LH, you must think I'm an idiot.
Cripes, LH, you must think I'm an idiot. Of course I see the logical fallacy--my question was designed to point it out!
What was the point of your saying that there is supposedly more evidence against Socrates' existence than Jesus? If each case is taken on its merits, Socrates is perfectly irrelevant to the Jesus incident.
Sometimes. 😉 No doubt you think the same of me at times. Shouldn't stop us having a civilised and meaningful conversation, though.
What was the point of your saying that there is supposedly more evidence against Socrates' existence than Jesus? If each case is taken on its merits, Socrates is perfectly irrelevant to the Jesus incident.
Socrates is irrelevant to Jesus, but the standard of proof for the historicity of Socrates is not. Read my argument again - it assumes no change in standards of historical proof.
Originally posted by lucifershammerQuite. There is no irrefutable evidence for the existence of either--only a scale of probability. Hardened skeptics need not fear incarceration.
Socrates is irrelevant to Jesus, but the standard of proof for the historicity of Socrates is not. Read my argument again - it assumes no change in standards of historical proof.
This is starting to feel a bit like an ID vs. TOE thread. Excuse me...
Originally posted by lucifershammerI'm saying that finding the myth scenario more plausable than the historical scenario does not make one insane.
How is it more plausible? Is it more plausible to believe that Mohammed never existed (and his first biography doesn't get written for nearly two centuries!)? Or Buddha? Or Zarathustra?
As for Buddha and Zarathustra, or even Mohammed, I have never looked into their cases. If some one claimed that the historicity of these figures was doubtful and offered some good reasoning, I'd have to check out the case for historicity myself. If their case was as weak as that for JC, I'd have to admit that their being myths is a reasonable possibility.
Do you believe insane is an accurate way to describe a person who thinks it more likely that Socrates was a literary construction of Plato than that Socrates was a real person?
Personally, I'm agnostic about whether Jesus Christ really lived. Furthermore, I could really care less what the answer is as it doesn't affect my position on anything in regards to JC. The fact that there is so much room for doubting his historicity is more than enough for me.
Originally posted by telerionI'm saying that finding the myth scenario more plausable than the historical scenario does not make one insane.
I'm saying that finding the myth scenario more plausable than the historical scenario does not make one insane.
As for Buddha and Zarathustra, or even Mohammed, I have never looked into their cases. If some one claimed that the historicity of these figures was doubtful and offered some good reasoning, I'd have to check out the case for historicity mys ...[text shortened]... he fact that there is so much room for doubting his historicity is more than enough for me.
Maybe not legally or medically insane. How about just "nutters"?
As for Buddha and Zarathustra, or even Mohammed, I have never looked into their cases. If some one claimed that the historicity of these figures was doubtful and offered some good reasoning, I'd have to check out the case for historicity myself. If their case was as weak as that for JC, I'd have to admit that their being myths is a reasonable possibility.
However weak the case is for the historicity of Jesus (and I contend that the case isn't weak at all compared to many other historical figures from the period; it will definitely be weaker than the case for, say, JFK, naturally), the case for his non-existence is weaker still. Absence of proof is not proof of absence, as you well know. The case for a fictional Jesus does not have any positive evidence to back it - it is a case built entirely on discrediting positive evidence for his existence (and it doesn't do a particularly great job of that either).
With that standard of proof, the person in question could believe that Jesus and Socrates were fictional, that the moon landings were a hoax, that Roswell was visited by aliens and that the Holocaust never happened. At which point he is, if not technically insane, then just nutters.
Of course, all of this assumes that the person in question has reviewed, to a reasonable extent, the arguments for and against the historicity of Jesus. It's possible that, in the modern 'Da Vinci Code' world, a person may have received unbalanced information on the matter and is just mistaken. Nevertheless, such a person still has to believe in the "absence of evidence equals evidence of absence" principle.