16 Mar 07
1 edit
Originally posted by ahosyney[/b][/i]Good question. I think there is a way, but I have to be away today. Let me think about it and get back to you (bump me if I forget).
That doesn't answer part of my question. But there still a problem. In your first post:
[i]However, based on the word analysis and context, some scholars (maybe most of them, I don’t know) think that these statements in John take on a special meaning. In them, Jesus is not referring to his human self, but to the divine [b]“I-AM” of the Hebrew scriptures, the original meaning by Jesus was , because we are not sure what language he was speaking.
Also, because I think there is a way it can be argued, that doesn't mean there is not a good argument in your point too.
There are really two questions here for Christianity (not just one):
(1) Was Jesus in any way claiming divinity? (One of the arguments I have seen that he was not, was based on the meanings and usages of the terms "son of man" and "son of God" as Aramaic idioms.)
(2) If he was, what did/does that mean? (For example, was he claiming it uniquely for himself, or somehow for all humanity--and, either way, what might that mean?)
17 Mar 07
1 edit
Originally posted by kirksey957... now that would be nice, Kirk.
Paula White is my soul molester of the week. "If you don't send in that $77 your prayers for healing will go unanswered." I love to call her 800 number and match wits with her telephone whores. Maybe I'll post some of my conversations as a little treat and levity for this forum.