Originally posted by Rajk999Is this purely by the mechanism of making people forget, or is there more to it? If it is purely by making people forget, then why is there a difference?
From a human standpoint then no the end of a period of suffering cannot undo the past. However from the point of view of the Bible, Yes God is able to wipe away the past suffering so that it is just as if it never happened.
And secondly, if God is going to wipe away all past suffering, then surely it doesn't really matter what the 'human standpoint' is as God is going to take care of it? It doesn't matter how much suffering happens now as God will make it as if it never happened.
In the eg of the unfaithful spouse, only when the knowledge of the unfaithfulness manifests itself then there is suffering on the part of the wronged spouse. The guility spouse is wrong to do it whether or not anyone finds out.
Why is it wrong?
It is morally wrong to torment anyone who does not deserve it.
Why? If the process is later reversed, then why would it be wrong? You said that forgetting it later makes it as good as never having happened. If it is still morally wrong, then it is not really equivalent to never having happened is it?
02 Jun 14
Originally posted by twhiteheadInteresting thread. Hope someone else carries on the discussion.
Is this purely by the mechanism of making people forget, or is there more to it? If it is purely by making people forget, then why is there a difference?
And secondly, if God is going to wipe away all past suffering, then surely it doesn't really matter what the 'human standpoint' is as God is going to take care of it? It doesn't matter how much sufferin ...[text shortened]... . If it is still morally wrong, then it is not really equivalent to never having happened is it?