Originally posted by Fright5:1 are not even decent odds. 10:1 and I might consider it.
I will give 1.5-1 for anyone who thinks the Rams will have a better record than the Seahawks. I will give the same 1.5-1 regarding the same bet Rams Vs. 49ers.
I will give 5-1 to anyone who thinks Rams will outright win the division.
Originally posted by USArmyParatrooper1/4 (1 in 4) would be equal chances (25% ). 1:4 (1 to 4) would be 20% as its 1 for you and 4 against you.
Yep. 1:4 odds would mean all the teams have equal chances.
http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/25/probability/does-4-1-odds-mean-you-have-25-20-chance-win-260178/
Originally posted by FrightI'm not familiar with proper annotations when it comes to betting odds. I'm pretty sure you know I meant 4 to 1 odds.
1/4 (1 in 4) would be equal chances (25% ). 1:4 (1 to 4) would be 20% as its 1 for you and 4 against you.
http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/25/probability/does-4-1-odds-mean-you-have-25-20-chance-win-260178/
yeah the phrasing gets confusing. the rams at random are 1/4 of the division but when you flip to the ":" or "to" format it would be 3:1 as 49ers+hawks+cards(3) : rams(1). . . so if you start it as a fraction you'd have to take 1 value out of the denominator side. (as the base in question leaves the groupings in a vs. format)
In a game like poker if you have to calculate pot odds vs. actual value very fast and you forget do change the denominator(when comparing the numbers) you can get screwed... Ive done it a few times.
if something is truly random then the sum of all the possible outcomes should = 0 for the ratio to be correct.
3:1 would be +300 rams, -100 49er, -100 hawk, -100 cards.. +300- 300= 0
The funny thing is one time my friend and I were bored so I offered to play a single dice (die?) game where I get 6:1 every time it lands on a 1. 😛 The expected value is +18cents for every dollar bet.