A Christian

Originally posted by no1marauder
The incidents I gave are places where Jesus directly did not follow and said it was not necessary to follow specific laws in the Law of Moses given in Leviticus and Deutronomy. The earlier words are still there in your Bible, but Jesus, by word and deed, said those laws are no longer in force.

Give an example.

Originally posted by Coletti
Give an example.

Read my prior posts to BF101; I'm not repeating them for someone who is tooooooo lazy to follow the thread.

EDIT: http://www.timeforchess.com/board/showthread.php?threadid=24911&page=5

Originally posted by no1marauder
Read my prior posts to BF101; I'm not repeating them for someone who is tooooooo lazy to follow the thread.

Just give one example - one verse where Jesus is changing OT law.

Originally posted by Coletti
Just give one example - one verse where Jesus is changing OT law.

I gave three on page 5.

Originally posted by no1marauder
I gave three on page 5.

I read them. There was not one case were Jesus changed any OT law.

Originally posted by Coletti
I think it must be read in context. The "earth" means the lands or nations, the the men and lands referred to are those of the known world of that time, the Gentile nations that were enemies of the Jews at that time.

[b]Psa 83:1-18 -
Psalm 83 requires only to call attention to its subject. It is the last confederacy of the nations surroundin ...[text shortened]... ngs.

Synopsis of the Old and New Testaments

John Nelson Darby (1800 - 1882)

[/b]

so why dont people use his real name?

Originally posted by Coletti
I read them. There was not one case were Jesus changed any OT law.

BS. I gave the specific passages in both the NT and OT. Are you going to defend your ridiculous assertion or just make it?

Originally posted by Coletti
I read them. There was not one case were Jesus changed any OT law.

only 3 possibilities here...
1) Christ changed the law
2 )The " law" wasn't in fact the Law
3 ) you need to read em again

Originally posted by no1marauder
BS. I gave the specific passages in both the NT and OT. Are you going to defend your ridiculous assertion or just make it?

You made the assertion. You quoted Matthew 5:17 - 45 and then asserted "Clearly, Jesus in this passage is changing the Law of Moses on several matters." So which Law and by which verse is so "clearly" changing?

Originally posted by frogstomp
only 3 possibilities here...
1) Christ changed the law
2 )The " law" wasn't in fact the Law
3 ) you need to read em again

give an example

Originally posted by Coletti
give an example

Originally posted by Coletti
I read them. There was not one case were Jesus changed any OT law.


read em again

Originally posted by dale21
so why dont people use his real name?

There are many legitimate ways of addressing God as long as it is clear what you mean by "God." That is why the psalmist used the term JEHOVAH. That identifies God as the God of the Jews who gave them the Law. The one and only God.

JEHOVAH means the "self Existent or eternal."

Originally posted by frogstomp
Originally posted by Coletti
I read them. There was not one case were Jesus changed any OT law.


read em again

Not one change to the law. Oh well, you lose.

Originally posted by no1marauder
You're an idiot. The adulteress was NOT put to death as required by the Law of Moses. The disciples gathered grain i.e. worked on the Sabbath; a violation of the Law of Moses. Jesus changed the divorce law which was only allowed in the Law of Moses because of the "hardness of your hearts". You lose, jerkwad.

This must be some new definition of the moses law I had'nt previously been made aware of.


Ok It's an old joke, but it fits.