Originally posted by twhiteheadits not disputed because no one has even addressed it, will you therefore now publicly
Your point is not disputed by anyone - hence my comment that you are arguing with phantoms. (yes your irrelevant point is an irrelevancy).
admit that in the case of theft the Bibles morality and practice of making reparation for
the theft is superior to that of secular governments, again try to address the actual
content of this post.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieWhy should anyone address it if it is not being disputed? As you say yourself irrelevancies are just that, irrelevant.
its not disputed because no one has even addressed it,
will you therefore now publicly admit that in the case of theft the Bibles morality and practice of making reparation for the theft is superior to that of secular governments,
No, I won't, because I don't believe it is. But that wasn't the point. The point was that you claim that:
1. The Bible contains examples of morality superior to some secular governments.
2. Simply because Bible is immoral in some parts doesn't mean that its immoral in all parts.
Originally posted by twhitehead1. No, I won't, because I don't believe it is - whitey
Why should anyone address it if it is not being disputed? As you say yourself irrelevancies are just that, irrelevant.
[b]will you therefore now publicly admit that in the case of theft the Bibles morality and practice of making reparation for the theft is superior to that of secular governments,
No, I won't, because I don't believe it is. But tha ...[text shortened]... 2. Simply because Bible is immoral in some parts doesn't mean that its immoral in all parts.[/b]
belief is not a reason at all, it contains no evidence and is simply an unsubstantiated
opinion, where is your evidence that in the case of theft ( a specific example which
does not claim that the Bible is moral in its entirety) the Bible is not superior in morality
and practice to that of secular governments.
Originally posted by robbie carrobiePlease give a reference to what the provisions in the Bible are and I will give an opinion. I still don't see the relevance to the discussion. Is it relevant?
1. No, I won't, because I don't believe it is - whitey
belief is not a reason at all, it contains no evidence and is simply an unsubstantiated
opinion, where is your evidence that in the case of theft ( a specific example which
does not claim that the Bible is moral in its entirety) the Bible is not superior in morality
and practice to that of secular governments.
Originally posted by twhiteheadI already done so, but will do so again. In the case of theft the Bible mandate was that the
Please give a reference to what the provisions in the Bible are and I will give an opinion. I still don't see the relevance to the discussion. Is it relevant?
perpetrator of the theft had to make reparation for the value of what was stolen. This
is superior to the present secular system of incarceration which places the burden, not
on the individual to make reparation for what was lost, but on the state.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieUnless he is not convicted and then it can be taken to civil court for money damages. At least here in the USA.
I already done so, but will do so again. In the case of theft the Bible mandate was that the
perpetrator of the theft had to make reparation for the value of what was stolen. This
is superior to the present secular system of incarceration which places the burden, not
on the individual to make reparation for what was lost, but on the state.