Originally posted by twhiteheadWhere did person C come from? 😲
Its hard to say. I think someone capable of calming down and walking away deserves more credit than some who isn't so capable. But I fail to see how the intention of one was any less blameworthy than the other.
Now suppose person C gets to the managers office and he isn't in. Is he less blameworthy than person B who actually punched his manager? If not ...[text shortened]... of planning to punch him, you might as well go ahead? I think there are flaws in that argument.
It could be argued of course that 'going to the office' is a commencement of the action itself, not helpful when we're comparing action with intent. The question is, is an intent 'not acted upon' as bad as an act carried out. (In other words, is person D sitting at home thinking about punching his manager as bad as Person B who actually went through with it).
(My manager was out of the office).
Originally posted by FMFIn common usage the phrase 'telling people what to think' is taken to convey disapproval of that act. But we all do it, at least if we try to get people to think a certain way about something. We use devices: logical argument, appeal to emotions, authority, etc. the moral judgment seems to involve the legitimacy of the devices, and perhaps the likely outcomes of the thoughts conveyed.
If his point is that going around 'telling people what to think' (whatever that may actually mean) is morally unsound, then that might be an interesting thing to talk about.
08 Mar 17
Originally posted by Ghost of a DukeAccounting.
Where did person C come from? 😲
It could be argued of course that 'going to the office' is a commencement of the action itself, not helpful when we're comparing action with intent. The question is, is an intent 'not acted upon' as bad as an act carried out. (In other words, is person D sitting at home thinking about punching his manager as bad as Person B who actually went through with it).
I would say yes, if the intent is real. If D genuinely has every intention of punching his manager, and given the opportunity will do it. I say lack of opportunity or other accidental circumstances should not reduce culpability.
08 Mar 17
Originally posted by twhiteheadlol I never trust those chaps in Accounts.
Accounting.
[b]It could be argued of course that 'going to the office' is a commencement of the action itself, not helpful when we're comparing action with intent. The question is, is an intent 'not acted upon' as bad as an act carried out. (In other words, is person D sitting at home thinking about punching his manager as bad as Person B who actually ...[text shortened]... o it. I say lack of opportunity or other accidental circumstances should not reduce culpability.
Does it matter about time duration, in regards to intent? What if Person D only has the intent for a short while, and then decides against it? Is he still as culpable as Person K who punches the manager and steals his car?
Originally posted by twhiteheadYou are seriously advocating similar penalties for just thinking about doing something bad.
Attempted murder.
It is the motivation and intention that matter, not the actions.
I would go as far as to say that all bad intentions are as bad as the actions they intend, the only reason why typically do not punish them is that we cannot easily determine someones intentions or read their thoughts ie thought crimes are rarely punished, not because t ...[text shortened]... ure that that warranted charging him with anything, but it is clear that the law thought it did.
I'm pretty sure , unless you fully and unequivocally admit to the murder being planned in your mind, you'd have to have some physical evidence first, right?
I bet a lot of people have the intention to murder but never go through with it when it comes to actually committing the crime.
If anything I would commend those people for pulling themselves up in time, rather than punish them for perhaps having revenge fantasies. I dunno, just thinkin out loud here
edit: This post is made without reading the rest of thread yet
08 Mar 17
Originally posted by twhiteheadwhat about corporate codes? Who are above the law and holden only to their shareholders?
They are strongly related. We charge people with crimes when:
1. They are very morally bad.
2. We can prove it.
Criminal codes are a very good indication of what societies believe to be morally wrong.
Originally posted by twhiteheadWhat if I fantasize about preparing to murder someone?
An intention that is just a 'dark fantasy you cannot go through with' is not equivalent to an intention that you will go through with.
I am saying that it remains the intention not the action that renders one morally guilty - although I do recognize the concept of compensation.
I also recognize that intuitively we think there is reduced guilt if an acti ...[text shortened]... sizing about having an affair with her, is not the same as intending to have an affair with her.
Fantasize exactly about how I'm going to do it?
It's still only fantasizing no?
08 Mar 17
Originally posted by Ghost of a DukeI don't know. Judging crimes relative to each other is always difficult. Was D also planning to steal the car? What if D was planning to blow up the offices?
Does it matter about time duration, in regards to intent? What if Person D only has the intent for a short while, and then decides against it? Is he still as culpable as Person K who punches the manager and steals his car?
I do know that premeditated murder gets a higher sentence than spur of the moment murder.
08 Mar 17
Originally posted by karoly aczelYes, if it could be proven. It can't, so no, I am not actually advocating it. And I am talking about real intent here, not fantasizing.
You are seriously advocating similar penalties for just thinking about doing something bad.
I'm pretty sure , unless you fully and unequivocally admit to the murder being planned in your mind, you'd have to have some physical evidence first, right?
I am pretty sure that charges of attempted murder have been made and successfully prosecuted on little more than a phone conversation or chat in a bar.
08 Mar 17
Originally posted by FMFAre you trying to say that your view in judgement is correct?
There are some Christians here who subscribe to notions promoting the "perfect" nature and "ultimate" morality of inconceivably angry violence as an active and never ending revenge for thoughtcrimes.
If that's what some people believe happens, then so be it. I don't think them having such ideas is morally unsound, in and of itself ~ good luck to them i ...[text shortened]... y imbued with such extraordinary violence and anger be morally unsound in certain circumstances.
Or do you allow yourself to have a skewed view making your judgement lacking validity?
Originally posted by twhiteheadyes, a conversation is a type of action.
Yes, if it could be proven. It can't, so no, I am not actually advocating it. And I am talking about real intent here, not fantasizing.
[b]I'm pretty sure , unless you fully and unequivocally admit to the murder being planned in your mind, you'd have to have some physical evidence first, right?
I am pretty sure that charges of attempted murder hav ...[text shortened]... been made and successfully prosecuted on little more than a phone conversation or chat in a bar.[/b]