Originally posted by divegeesteri dont think it is a valid translation but perhaps others know of a reason, yet,
You are obviously itching to tell us all why you think it is, so why don't you put yourself out of your misery.
overcoming their cynicism seems quite difficult, they felt that i was a laying a trap for
them.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieIs there really that much difference between a 'ghost' and a 'spirit' that intriuges you so much?
i dont think it is a valid translation but perhaps others know of a reason, yet,
overcoming their cynicism seems quite difficult, they felt that i was a laying a trap for
them.
Originally posted by divegeesteryes, they are entirely unrelated, the term apparition or ghost has no place here,
Is there really that much difference between a 'ghost' and a 'spirit' that intriuges you so much?
otherwise we would read verses like this, God is an apparition (spirit) and those
worshipping him must worship in apparition (spirit) and truth. So clearly there is a
difference.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieAccording to you.
yes, they are entirely unrelated, the term apparition or ghost has no place here,
otherwise we would read verses like this, God is an apparition (spirit) and those
worshipping him must worship in apparition (spirit) and truth. So clearly there is a
difference.
I don't see any distinction; nor do I see the point of this thread tbh.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieI really don't think that it matters that much because the Bible is obviously referring to the same thing. You worry too much about these technicalities and not enough about spiritual matters.
do you or dont you know why the Greek word 'ruach', is translated as Ghost or do you
not, for nowhere else is it translated as ghost, spirit yes, wind yes, but Ghost? This is
really a rather poor reflection of how much you people actually know about your Bibles,
you have really no idea why a verse is translated in the way it is, do you? that is very
very worrying.
Ah, found it!
Medieval English theologians believed the Holy Spirit (the Third Person of the Holy Trinity) was unknown to the Hebrews and Jews of the Old Testament era. They believed he first appeared at the festival of Pentecost recorded in Acts chapter 2. This belief created a dilemma for them. For if the Third Person was unknown prior to his appearance, who or what was the Ruach mentioned in the OT?
To solve the problem and prevent conflicting interpretations, these theologians and their printers created two distinctions.
First. They coined the phrase "Holy Ghost" to designate the Third Person of the Trinity. John Wycliffe's version of 1380 was the first major translation to use the phrase. Later Bible editors followed his example and used "Holy Ghost" only in their NT portions, never in the OT.
The King James Version of 1611 followed the tradition and has the phrase 90x in its NT. And it never has "the Ghost," "Ghost of God," or "Ghost of Jesus." Instead, we read "the Spirit, of God, of Jesus," even though the same Greek word pneuma lies behind "ghost" and "spirit." The special phrase "Holy Ghost" denotes an independent, coequal member of the Godhead.
http://www.hebrew-streams.org/works/spirit/ruachpneuma.html
So, robbie you were saying that you wern't talking about the trinity...??
Originally posted by robbie carrobieI already told you. It is to emphasize that He is a person just like the Father
well why does your translation render the Greek term as Ghost?
and the Son. The Holy Spirit is the Holy Ghost or the Holy Person that can
not be touched physically. 😏
P.S. The Holy Ghost may be seen, but not touched.
The Son may be seen and touched.
The Father is never seen or touched.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieHow about the Holy Spirit decending upon Christ like a dove when he was baptized? What is your take on that?
yes i understand, but why the term Ghost, can you think of any other instance of
'ruach', translated as spirit, also wind in some cases, as being an apparition?