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rc

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Originally posted by FMF
Your 'earthquake' "sign" was determinedly unscientific and therefore unconvincing. Your 'famine' "sign" is fading away and therefore unconvincing. We have certainly discovered that you are content to make predictions about "the last days of the conclusion of the system of things" based on unconvincing assertions that coincide exactly with what you want and need them to be.
these things demonstrated the beginning of what Christ termed , 'pangs of distress',
your objections amounted to, incomplete data, despite the fact that many of the events
were from records as far back as the 800's and that famines are no longer as prevalent
as they were, which is not really the point at all, for Christ states that these things
would simply be a sign of the beginning of distress.

rc

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Originally posted by FMF
What if there are no more World Wars for 2,000 years?
sorry FMF, i dont do speculating, I am interested in empirical evidence, now what may
or may not occur.

Proper Knob
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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
yes that's fine, but there was no world war prior to 1914, was there.
You claimed that there was 'nothing like' the World Wars prior to them, i'm claiming that there was. The Black Death of the 14th century killed more people then both World Wars combined. The destruction the pestilence caused, across three continents, was akin to a World War.

Proper Knob
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Originally posted by FMF
Your 'earthquake' "sign" was determinedly unscientific and therefore unconvincing. Your 'famine' "sign" is fading away and therefore unconvincing. We have certainly discovered that you are content to make predictions about "the last days of the conclusion of the system of things" based on unconvincing assertions that coincide exactly with what you want and need them to be.
This could be why he's only managed to persuade 2 people to join the JW's in the 15 years of his public ministry.

rc

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Originally posted by FMF
The JW organisation started teaching that the end of the world is nigh in 1914?
not the end of the world, we felt that 1914 was a significant date as early as the 1870's
I think, (it has to do with Biblical prophecy and chronology and what the Bible terms
'the end of the gentile times' and the 'presence of Christ in heaven', which nominal
Christians mistakenly call the second coming , not really a coming at all, but a
presence.)

F

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
sorry FMF, i dont do speculating, I am interested in empirical evidence, now what may
or may not occur.
Your 'earthquake' "evidence" relied on undisguised "speculation" about the nature and comparability of the historical record over time.

rc

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Originally posted by Proper Knob
You claimed that there was 'nothing like' the World Wars prior to them, i'm claiming that there was. The Black Death of the 14th century killed more people then both World Wars combined. The destruction the pestilence caused, across three continents, was akin to a World War.
the Black death wasn't a war dear PK, it was a plague last time i looked. Oho, its now
being construed as akin to a world war, Ill put up the fiery hoops and you jump through
them! LOL

F

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
not the end of the world, we felt that 1914 was a significant date as early as the 1870's
I think, (it has to do with Biblical prophecy and chronology and what the Bible terms
'the end of the gentile times' and the 'presence of Christ in heaven', which nominal
Christians mistakenly call the second coming , not really a coming at all, but a
presence.)
So in what year did the JW organisation start teaching that the end of the world is nigh?

F

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double post

rc

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Originally posted by FMF
Your 'earthquake' "evidence" relied on undisguised "speculation" about the nature and comparability of the historical record over time.
no it didn't, it merely relied upon a mere calculation of the percentage of earthquakes
and their death toll over the whole of the recorded period to establish that the
preponderance had occurred in the twentieth century.

F

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
no it didn't, it merely relied upon a mere calculation of the percentage of earthquakes
and their death toll over the whole of the recorded period to establish that the
preponderance had occurred in the twentieth century.
How many earthquakes do you claim there were in the 9thC?

Proper Knob
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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
the Black death wasn't a war dear PK, it was a plague last time i looked. Oho, its now
being construed as akin to a world war, Ill put up the fiery hoops and you jump through
them! LOL
I know it was a plague, i'm talking about the destruction it caused you berk.

rc

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Originally posted by FMF
double post
Its hard to say without checking the details, you see our understanding of these things
has changed over the years, so what was professed in 1870 is not the same as what is
professed to this day as we are constantly revising our teaching.

rc

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Originally posted by FMF
How many earthquakes do you claim there were in the 9thC?
I dont claim any, i merely am at liberty to utilise the data at hand, not to uselessly speculate.

rc

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Originally posted by Proper Knob
I know it was a plague, i'm talking about the destruction it caused you berk.
yes i know that but we are referencing a composite sign, not events in isolation. In
order for that periods to have been the beginning of 'pangs of distress', it would need
to have been accompanied by global wars as well.

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