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tears in court get leniency for AIDS sentence

tears in court get leniency for AIDS sentence

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Originally posted by bbarr
...parents were charged with attempted murder for feeding their kid too little, even though they had no intention of killing her.
In other words "yes". That's what I wanted to know.

sh76
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Originally posted by FMF
Interesting. But many people live for many years with HIV. What other kinds of negligence and irresponsibility could be packaged as a murder conviction? Do you not have "manslaughter" in the U.S.?
I suppose, depending on the circumstances and the jury in question, it may only be reckless endangerment or aggravated assault.

But, for example, the same can be true in Canada.

Google "Steven Paul Boone."

sh76
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Originally posted by FMF
I can't agree to this being catagorized as "murder" unless they can establish that she killed her baby intentionally. I think there is nothing wrong with the word "murder" and there's no purpose served by changing or widening its meaning.
Under the common law, which comes from England and is still applied in most states (and, though I'm not sure, I'd figure in the UK as well), intent is not necessary for a murder charge. Conduct that evinces a "depraved indifference to human life" that causes death is also murder.

F

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Originally posted by sh76
I suppose, depending on the circumstances and the jury in question, [Benaissa's actions] may only be reckless endangerment or aggravated assault...
...until someone she slept with dies and then... murder?

sh76
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Originally posted by FMF
...until someone she slept with dies and then... murder?
Either murder or manslaughter. I would guess it would be considered manslaughter in most cases; but depending on that level of intent and/or knowledge of the effects of AIDS can be proven, it might be considered murder.

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Originally posted by sh76
Either murder or manslaughter. I would guess it would be considered manslaughter in most cases; but depending on that level of intent and/or knowledge of the effects of AIDS can be proven, it might be considered murder.
Can 'who gave someone AIDS' be established beyond doubt?

K

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Originally posted by sh76
Either murder or manslaughter. I would guess it would be considered manslaughter in most cases; but depending on that level of intent and/or knowledge of the effects of AIDS can be proven, it might be considered murder.
I know that in the Netherlands knowingly infecting someone with HIV is considered aggravated assault. You don't die (directly) from getting hiv so murder seems a little silly.

sh76
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Originally posted by FMF
Can 'who gave someone AIDS' be established beyond doubt?
Beyond a reasonable doubt, I would think so. For example, if the victim had no other partners in that time frame, etc.

sh76
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Originally posted by KazetNagorra
I know that in the Netherlands knowingly infecting someone with HIV is considered aggravated assault. You don't die (directly) from getting hiv so murder seems a little silly.
Of course you die from HIV. The disease is the "but for" cause of death.

You don't die from the gunshot but from the blood loss.

K

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Originally posted by sh76
Of course you die from HIV. The disease is the "but for" cause of death.

You don't die from the gunshot but from the blood loss.
For most patients, antiretroviral drugs will prevent the HIV-virus from causing AIDS.

no1marauder
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Originally posted by bbarr
If her actions indicate a reckless and extreme disregard for human life, then (I think) it counts as attempted murder here in the U.S.
Attempt requires actual intent; depraved indifference or reckless and extreme disregard won't do for an attempt.

sh76
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In 2009, a Canadian man was convicted of First degree Murder for knowingly having unprotected sex while HIV positive.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Johnson_Aziga

sh76
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Originally posted by KazetNagorra
For most patients, antiretroviral drugs will prevent the HIV-virus from causing AIDS.
And for most gunshot victims, getting treatment will allow the person's life to be saved. So what? If the person does die, the gunshot/HIV transmission was the "but for" cause of death.

no1marauder
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Originally posted by sh76
In 2009, a Canadian man was convicted of First degree Murder for knowingly having unprotected sex while HIV positive.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Johnson_Aziga
It seems possible to be convicted of murder for this, but not for attempted murder which requires actual intent (barring changes in State laws I'm not aware of). Here's a Utah case saying that there is no such crime as attempted depraved indifference murder. http://www.brownbradshaw.com/uploads/Vigil.pdf

K

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Originally posted by sh76
And for most gunshot victims, getting treatment will allow the person's life to be saved. So what? If the person does die, the gunshot/HIV transmission was the "but for" cause of death.
So if a person dies after, say, 20 years, can you then arrest the perpretator? Seems a strange brand of justice.

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