Muslim Murdered by Hindus for Allegedly Eating Beef in India

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
here is the question that both FMF and Proper knob seem unable to bring themselves to answer, if consent has already been given to yield ones body to ones partner how can so called marital rape take place. If anyone has any thoughts on the matter please let me know , I would be happy to hear them.

Rape is the crime of forcing a woman to submit to sexual intercourse against her will.

Originally posted by FMF
Rape is the crime of forcing a woman to submit to sexual intercourse against her will.

If you cannot answer the question just say so, i will not ask it again, its there for anyone who wishes to attempt to answer it.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
If you cannot answer the question just say so, i will not ask it again, its there for anyone who wishes to attempt to answer it.

The issue is the victim's "will" at the time of sexual intercourse. If it is done against her will then it is rape and it is a moral atrocity.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
here is the question that both FMF and Proper knob seem unable to bring themselves to answer objectively. If consent has already been given to yield ones body to ones partner how can so called 'marital rape', take place. If anyone has any thoughts on the matter please let me know , I would be happy to hear them.

My dentist came around last night at 2am, forcibly took out a tooth.
When I objected he said "You were OK with it last time!"

Silly me for objecting.

Originally posted by FMF
The issue is the victim's "will" at the time of sexual intercourse. If it is done against her will then it is rape and it is a moral atrocity.

consent has already been given

Originally posted by wolfgang59
My dentist came around last night at 2am, forcibly took out a tooth.
When I objected he said "You were OK with it last time!"

Silly me for objecting.

We shall see if robbie can make a case that forcing of a woman to submit to sexual intercourse against her will can be 'morally sound' behaviour.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
consent has already been given

So is it true? You don't think rape in marriage is possible?

Originally posted by wolfgang59
My dentist came around last night at 2am, forcibly took out a tooth.
When I objected he said "You were OK with it last time!"

Silly me for objecting.

have you given your dentist consent to come round and take your teeth out at anytime, no? then your analogy my friend is to distant to be of much use.

Originally posted by FMF
So is it true? You don't think rape in marriage is possible?

another stupid attempt to make the debate personal and will be ignored.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
dude why dont you simply answer the question, if consent has already been given to yield ones body to ones partner how can it be construed as marital rape - second time asking.

Surely the term 'mutual consent' in your scripture has a bearing on whether a man can rape his wife or not?

Surely there can also be no 'domestic violence' if a women has submitted her body during her wedding vows?

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
another stupid attempt to make the debate personal and will be ignored.

If a husband has been beating his wife up in front of her children throughout the day and he then tries to have sexual intercourse with her against her will, would you consider it rape?

Originally posted by Proper Knob
Surely the term 'mutual consent' in your scripture has a bearing on whether a man can rape his wife or not?

Mutual consent is used in the context of withdrawing the so called, 'marital due', for a specific purpose. Nor can it be applied to so called 'marital rape', because if one partner is insistent on exrcising the so called , 'marital due', its not be mutual consent is it, sigh another EPIC FAIL! also it has no bearing on the issue that you seem unable to answer, that being that if consent has already been given how can it be construed as rape.

Originally posted by FMF
If a husband has been beating his wife up in front of her children throughout the day and he then tries to have sexual intercourse with her against her will, would you consider it rape?

another personal view point question that will be ignored.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
if consent has already been given who can it be construed as rape.

If the sexual intercourse is against the woman's will at the time when the man is trying to force her to do it, it'd be rape surely?

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Mutual consent is used in the context of withdrawing the so called, 'marital due', for a specific purpose. Nor can it be applied to so called 'marital rape', because if one partner is insistent on exrcising the so called , 'marital due', its not be mutual consent is it, sigh another EPIC FAIL! also it has no bearing on the issue that you seem unable to answer, that being that if consent has already been given who can it be construed as rape.

You appear to be justify sexual violence through the use of Bilbical scripture and you're terming what I type an EPIC FAIL?!