15 Dec 12
Originally posted by Rank outsidersorry i have tried my best, i can do no more.
No, I have clearly demonstrated that JWs do advocate the use of the death penalty on the basis of Mosaic Law. The words of Watchtower make that clear.
I cannot understand your position as it appears to conflict with what I have read on JW.org. I would have thought you would have respected my attempt to understand your beliefs by reference to this ...[text shortened]... ou seem to think that repeating the same thing is a good way to teach and explain your position.
15 Dec 12
Originally posted by Rank outsideryes i know, but so what, it hardly matters in the case of harlotry if you are married or
In case I wasn't clear, when I said 'man and wife', I meant people engaging in sexual acts [b]within marriage.[/b]
not, does it? and in order for you to commit adultery, of necessity you need to be
married, is it not the case? for as i have demonstrated pornia covers a much broader
spectrum than extra marital or intra marital.
15 Dec 12
Originally posted by robbie carrobieIt is amazing that you post two explanations of pornia that you specifically relate to sexual relations outside of marriage, and then complain when I question the relevance to sexual relations within marriage.
yes i know, but so what, it hardly matters in the case of harlotry if you are married or
not, does it? and in order for you to commit adultery, of necessity you need to be
married, is it not the case? for as i have demonstrated pornia covers a much broader
spectrum than extra marital or intra marital.
The Bible applies different standards to what is acceptable sexual behaviour depending on whether you are married or not. It is not unreasonable to ask whether this applies to anal sex and oral sex.
I have not seen from what you have posted any clear view that anal sex and oral sex between a man and his wife are prohibited by the Bible.
15 Dec 12
1 edit
Originally posted by robbie carrobieI am talking about acts between a man and wife, not acts committed by married people with others.
yes i know, but so what, it hardly matters in the case of harlotry if you are married or
not, does it? and in order for you to commit adultery, of necessity you need to be
married, is it not the case? for as i have demonstrated pornia covers a much broader
spectrum than extra marital or intra marital.
Adultery, by definition, cannot occur between a man and his wife.
I am not sure I know what you mean by harlotry, but unless you meant something engaged in between married people, again this is not relevant.
15 Dec 12
Originally posted by robbie carrobieLet's see, on one hand there is a prohibition against stealing, committing adultery and homosexuality and on the other hand there is no prohibition against wearing garments of "two kinds of material mixed together". Yet you evidently cannot give a Biblical explanation of which are accepted and which are rejected on a case by case basis. Anything other than that amounts to man picking and choosing what parts of the Bible to accept or reject.
simply put because these are also covered under the law and are binding upon
witnesses in principle. If you can state how mixing two materials applies in principle,
then be my guest, we also tend not to boil a calf in its mothers milk, again a prohibition
under the law, just sayin, or to muzzle a bull on the threshing floor, or to yoke to
uns ...[text shortened]... animals together, or to cut down palm branches and celebrate the festival of
booths seven days.
15 Dec 12
Originally posted by ThinkOfOneif it appears to you that such is the case then who am I to dissuade you?
Let's see, on one hand there is a prohibition against stealing, committing adultery and homosexuality and on the other hand there is no prohibition against wearing garments of "two kinds of material mixed together". Yet you evidently cannot give a Biblical explanation of which are accepted and which are rejected on a case by case basis. Anything other than that amounts to man picking and choosing what parts of the Bible to accept or reject.
15 Dec 12
Originally posted by Rank outsideryes I know but as i have already stated, so what? pornia is pornia whether you are
I am talking about acts [b]between a man and wife, not acts committed by married people with others.
Adultery, by definition, cannot occur between a man and his wife.
I am not sure I know what you mean by harlotry, but unless you meant something engaged in between married people, again this is not relevant.[/b]
husband or wife or whether you are not.
15 Dec 12
1 edit
Originally posted by Rank outsiderAgain you can claim what you like, your claim has no Biblical basis as far as I am
Ok, and in turn I will stand by my view that if you accept the Bible in its entirety, you should advocate the death penalty for acts of homosexuality.
concerned.
15 Dec 12
Originally posted by robbie carrobieUnless you can provide a Biblical explanation of which are accepted and which are rejected on a case by case basis, it amounts to man picking and choosing what parts of the Bible to accept or reject.
if it appears to you that such is the case then who am I to dissuade you?
It is what it is: Cherry picking just as sonhouse said.
15 Dec 12
Originally posted by robbie carrobieWell, what I have read about porneia suggests it relates to sexual acts outside of marriage. So when you posted two definitions that supported this view, I was happy to accept this.
yes I know but as i have already stated, so what? pornia is pornia whether you are
husband or wife or whether you are not.
So, as yet, you have not shown that the Bible prohibits oral sex and anal sex between a man and a wife.
15 Dec 12
Originally posted by robbie carrobieNo problem. If you think of any reason why the Watchtower can use Mosaic Law to advocate the death penalty for murder, but not for homosexual acts, I am willing to listen.
Again you can claim what you like, your claim has no Biblical basis as far as I am
concerned.