Originally posted by robbie carrobieDid you not read Ezra chapter 7 as I mentioned. The 8th verse
During the 20th year of his reign (455 B.C.E.), Artaxerxes Longimanus granted
permission to Nehemiah to return to Jerusalem to rebuild the walls and gates of the
city. (Ne 2:1-8) Because this is referred to at Daniel 9:25 as relating to the time of
the promised coming of the Messiah, the date of Artaxerxes 20th year is very
important.
we h ...[text shortened]... Temple and to rebuild the city
walls
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Artaxerxes_I_of_Persia
states that it was in the "seventh year of the king" that Ezra
went to Jerusalem from Babylon with the decree from Artaxerxes.
What was in the decree begins in verse 11. Notice verse 23 -
"Whatever is commanded by the God of heaven, let it be done..."
The intention of Artaxerxes is that Ezra and his people return to
Jerusalem, not only to worship God, but also to live there as God
commanded them to do. In verse 25, Artaxeres gives Ezra the
authority to appoint magistrates and judges. Why would it be
necessary to start a goverment if they were only going there
to worship? You will have to read all of Ezra and Nehemiah to get
the full picture of all that was going on at this time. As they were
trying to rebuild they were constantly be attached. That is why
the prophecy says, "even in times of distress". In Nehemiah 1:3
the walls along with the gates that they had build had been destroyed
by these attackers. This is why Nehemiah went to the King to get help
and protection and ask for letters that specified his needs in rebuilding
the walls and the city. Some believe these letters were the decree
spoken of in the prophecy in Daniel 9:25 and that is why they use the
twentieth year of the King to start the prophecy.
Originally posted by RJHindsyes i understand all of that, its not in question, it is the date of the twentieth year of the
Did you not read Ezra chapter 7 as I mentioned. The 8th verse
states that it was in the "seventh year of the king" that Ezra
went to Jerusalem from Babylon with the decree from Artaxerxes.
What was in the decree begins in verse 11. Notice verse 23 -
"Whatever is commanded by the God of heaven, let it be done..."
The intention of Artaxerxes is that Ezra aniel 9:25 and that is why they use the
twentieth year of the King to start the prophecy.
rule of Artaxerxes that i am questioning. wikipedia states 445BCE, you state 457BCE
and we state, 455BCE.
Originally posted by RJHindsAnd your behavior on this forum is enough for me to to know that you either did not understand what he had to say or have chosen to ignore it. Don't judge yourself - you don't have the integrity to do so fairly.
If you have any knowledge of what Jesus the Christ had to say,
you apparently did not understand the meaning of what He said.
I understand you are an atheist. That's enough proof for me that
you lack understanding. Judge yourself.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieI stated 457 B.C. as the 7th year not the 20th year.
yes i understand all of that, its not in question, it is the date of the twentieth year of the
rule of Artaxerxes that i am questioning. wikipedia states 445BCE, you state 457BCE
and we state, 455BCE.
The decree was issued in in the 7th year and that is the
beginning of the prophecy when the decree was issued.
And as I stated before the year the king began to rule is
called the "beginning of the kingship" but since it did not
begin at the beginning of the year it was counted as the
last year of the previous king. And even though He started
his reign in 464 B.C. it was not a complete year so that
year was counted as the last year of the previous king.
So Artaxerxes' first complete year was 463 B.C. Therefore,
his 7th year was 457 B.C. His 20th year would be 444 B.C.
not 445 B.C. Maybe Wikipedia counts the year he began to reign
464 B.C. as his first year, but that is not how it was done then.
If you counted the last year of the previous king as the first year
of the next king, the total years of reign would appear one year
longer for each king. Do you understand now? The 20th year
was when Nehemiah went back to the King and got those letters,
it was not the year the decree was issued. The decree was issued
in the book of Ezra chapter 7 as I said twice before.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieI looked up the wikipedia article to see what they did. They are using
yes i understand all of that, its not in question, it is the date of the twentieth year of the
rule of Artaxerxes that i am questioning. wikipedia states 445BCE, you state 457BCE
and we state, 455BCE.
a date one year earlier than mine for the beginning of the kingship.
I also stummbled across this interpretation of the prophecy in Daniel
in my search for dates given for Artaxerxes date of reign.
http://star.wind.mystarband.net/bib/daniel_69_weeks_proof.html#issued
You might want to check it out but it is also on year earlier than my
dating. I am prejudice and still believe I have the correct dating.
But they do give a more detailed explanation of the prophecy.
The 455 B.C. date is way off in my opinion so you are going to ask
you leadership how they came up with that date.
Originally posted by RJHindsDo you think a Christian is a better moral person than an atheist?
If you have any knowledge of what Jesus the Christ had to say,
you apparently did not understand the meaning of what He said.
I understand you are an atheist. That's enough proof for me that
you lack understanding. Judge yourself.