Originally posted by wolfgang59Yes, I have been told numerous times in this thread that I screwed that up. Until now, I had not realized the term was referring to Mary being either sinless, or having an 'immaculate soul'. I'm not exactly sure yet what it means, or how I feel about it.
You don't appear to understand what the "Immaculate Conception" is!
Nothing to do with Jesus! 🙄
Originally posted by chaney3I think it is a meaningless term that has nothing to scripture only a doctrine where people
Yes, I have been told numerous times in this thread that I screwed that up. Until now, I had not realized the term was referring to Mary being either sinless, or having an 'immaculate soul'. I'm not exactly sure yet what it means, or how I feel about it.
want to make Mary out to be more than she should be.
Originally posted by chaney3It's a Catholic thing. Humans are guilty for being created, and so we get sent to Hell. That's the baseline.
Yes, I have been told numerous times in this thread that I screwed that up. Until now, I had not realized the term was referring to Mary being either sinless, or having an 'immaculate soul'. I'm not exactly sure yet what it means, or how I feel about it.
Originally posted by KellyJayDue to my error, I have been researching this, and have been surprised to find out that 'someone' felt the need to determine that Mary had some sort of 'sinless birth', free from original sin? Even though she had human parents?
I think it is a meaningless term that has nothing to scripture only a doctrine where people
want to make Mary out to be more than she should be.
So.....God not only provided the Y chromosome to Jesus, but He felt that Mary needed to be sinless too?
20 May 17
Originally posted by chaney3There's no convincing reason to believe it is "God" doing anything. Religious functionaries have been concocting theology for over 20 centuries.
Due to my error, I have been researching this, and have been surprised to find out that 'someone' felt the need to determine that Mary had some sort of 'sinless birth', free from original sin? Even though she had human parents?
So.....God not only provided the Y chromosome to Jesus, but He felt that Mary needed to be sinless too?
20 May 17
Originally posted by chaney3 to apathistKellyJay recently basically said (in conversation with avalanchethecat) what amounted to the same thing as what apathist characterized: "Humans are guilty for being created, and so we get sent to Hell" ...that is, of course, unless you imagine/believe the same things as KellyJay does.
Not sure if you're kidding, but I bet a lot of people think something like your statement is true.
20 May 17
Originally posted by FMFWell, since I had it wrong, I don't know yet if this doctrine appears in the Bible, or was formed much later.
There's no convincing reason to believe it is "God" doing anything. Religious functionaries have been concocting theology for over 20 centuries.
I admittedly am surprised that this escaped me all these years.
20 May 17
Originally posted by chaney3Whether it appears in the Bible or whether ideologues later argued that the doctrine is justified by what is in the Bible, what does it really matter? The source is clearly the same.
Well, since I had it wrong, I don't know yet if this doctrine appears in the Bible, or was formed much later.
Originally posted by chaney3I'm an atheist and seem to know more about your religion than you do!
Well, since I had it wrong, I don't know yet if this doctrine appears in the Bible, or was formed much later.
I admittedly am surprised that this escaped me all these years.
What do you believe? ... and why?
Originally posted by KellyJayIt is not meaningless, its just that you don't believe in it. That you even know what doctrine it refers to, demonstrates that it has meaning.
I think it is a meaningless term that has nothing to scripture only a doctrine where people
want to make Mary out to be more than she should be.
The concept is very simple:
If you believe in the heritability of sin, then Jesus would have inherited any sin from his parents. One can declare that his father was God and thus sinless, but his mother was Mary and either Jesus inherited sin from here or she was sinless. If she was sinless then either her mother was sinless or she was conceived in a way that broke the heritability of sin.
Given that you, Kelly, have implied in the past that we are at least partially responsible for Adam and Eves sin, then you do believe that sin is inherited in some way. Now you may believe that sin inheritance isn't biological which may get you out of the 'immaculate conception', but then you must have some other explanation as to why Jesus managed to be sinless and avoid the responsibilities that come with being human.
Its a tough theological problem, and dismissing it as 'meaningless' suggests lazyness on your part.
Originally posted by chaney3That is the catholic teaching only and is erroneous, biblically speaking.
Due to my error, I have been researching this, and have been surprised to find out that 'someone' felt the need to determine that Mary had some sort of 'sinless birth', free from original sin? Even though she had human parents?
So.....God not only provided the Y chromosome to Jesus, but He felt that Mary needed to be sinless too?
The interesting thing in all this is whether or not God impregnated marry with a new fertilised egg, or caused one of her existing eggs to be fertilised. Because if it was an existing egg then the gene for "sinfulness" is carried on the Y chromosome, which is the "male" chromosome. And if sinfulness is a gene, then it can theoretically be identified and removed.
This could of course not be even theoretically scientifically sound as the Y chromosome triggers make embryo development, which is probably in tandem with the X chromosome gene. Who knows. Not me.