13 Jan 22
@ghost-of-a-duke saidRight, and I already responded to that. It’s a little deeper than you’re misrepresenting.
The same guy who said, 'Why do you call me good? No one is good--except God."
Jesus Christ is indirectly asking the rich young ruler if he knows who he’s talking to as a prelude to telling him to sell all he has, give the proceeds to the poor and follow Him.
Jesus is also indirectly asking the rich young ruler what he knows about good.
Here is an excerpt from a commentary on that passage:
<<1. Why do you call me good?
2. No one is good except God
The only piece of information that Jesus gave is this: No one is good but God.
There are 2 ways to understand his statement:
1. Only God is good.
2. I am not good.
3. Therefore, I am not God.
or
1. Only God is good.
2. I am good.
3. Therefore, I am God.>>
If you’re interested in why the second interpretation is correct, feel free to access the article via this link:
http://christianapologeticsalliance.com/2013/04/12/why-do-you-call-me-good/