The Garden of Eden

Originally posted by FMF
I have already answered this.

No you have failed to answer it or perhaps your objections with its use in scripture are solely down to prejudice. You were not asked if it was a noun, you were actually asked if its usage is intended as a reference to an allegorical event.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Its not, i have no issues with it. Is 'in my fathers day', also a reference to an allegorical event?

How could such an important tenet of your faith come down to wordplay about what the word "day" means or how it is used in an idiom in English?

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Poor witnesses, they were probable being kind to a lost spangled drugged balloonist.

If they persisted in not insisting that Hebrew folklore had to be taken to be "literally true" could you imagine them being asked to stop going door to door.

Originally posted by FMF
How could such an important tenet of your faith come down to wordplay about what the word "day" means or how it is used in an idiom in English?

It doesn't come down to word play i have already established how Paul informs us that the term 'day', may be an unspecified duration, when you were asked to proffer some other explanation for this self evident Biblical fact all you have is trite references to word play, so we shall ask you again, do you in view of the evidence have any other reason to assert that the term day may not be an unspecified duration of time based upon an examination of the Biblical text.

Originally posted by FMF
If they persisted in not insisting that Hebrew folklore had to be taken to be "literally true" could you imagine them being asked to stop going door to door.

were not the apostles of Christ also put under duress to refrain from going door to door, to which they replied, we must obey God as ruler rather than men?

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
You were not asked if it was a noun, you were actually asked if its usage is intended as a reference to an allegorical event.

The appearance of the word "day" in "in my fathers day" has nothing to do with the specific mention of "six days" in the Biblical allegory about the creation of the earth which seeks to encapsulates processes that took billions of years.

Originally posted by FMF
The appearance of the word "day" in "in my fathers day" has nothing to do with the specific mention of "six days" in the Biblical allegory about the creation of the earth which seeks to encapsulates processes that took billions of years.

do you in view of the evidence have any other reason to assert that the term day may not be an unspecified duration of time based upon an examination of the Biblical text.

second time asking, possible third.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
It doesn't come down to word play i have already established how Paul informs us that the term 'day', may be an unspecified duration...

Well if "six days" means something other than "six days" and instead might mean billions of years. then we are dealing with an allegory.

Originally posted by FMF
Well if "six days" means something other than "six days" and instead might mean billions of years. then we are dealing with an allegory.

but not in the case of in my fathers day, which is a reference to a literal event.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
do you in view of the evidence have any other reason to assert that the term day may not be an unspecified duration of time based upon an examination of the Biblical text.

second time asking, possible third.

A "day" is a very specific unit of time. So if it was used to refer to something vastly different than what the word "day" means, then we have an allegory on our hands.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
but not in the case of in my fathers day, which is a reference to a literal event.

"In my fathers day" is an idiomatic expression. Is 'creation took six days' an idiomatic expression?

Originally posted by FMF
Well if "six days" means something other than "six days" and instead might mean billions of years. then we are dealing with an allegory.

so we may use the term day, as in my fathers day to reference a literal event at some unspecified time in the past but we cannot use the same term day to also make reference to a literal Biblical event in the past, why is that FMF.

Originally posted by FMF
"In my fathers day" is an idiomatic expression. Is 'creation took six days' an idiomatic expression?

Whether its idiomatic i cannot say, perhaps you had best look up a grammatical reference if you are interested in the grammar, here we are discussing its usage, which you seem unable to address.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
were not the apostles of Christ also put under duress to refrain from going door to door, to which they replied, we must obey God as ruler rather than men?

Could you imagine the JWs who played down the "literally true" thing when talking to me being asked to stop going door to door and teaching under the auspices of the JW organisation?

Originally posted by FMF
A "day" is a very specific unit of time. So if it was used to refer to something vastly different than what the word "day" means, then we have an allegory on our hands.

but i have provided Biblical evidence which demonstrates that its not a specific period, how are we to account for that. Paul states we are still in Gods rest day thousand of years later.