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Another sign of the godless times?

Another sign of the godless times?

Spirituality

u
semper fi

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Originally posted by RJHinds
I am sure you will agree that these are very good tactics for use in the
spiritual war against their perceived enemies.
I don't think they are good tactics at all. It is very much the same tactics most religions use in defense of their values. I can't say I blame them, or you.

L

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Perhaps a verse shall help us out,

(2 Peter 3:9) . . .Jehovah is not slow respecting his promise, as some people
consider slowness, but he is patient with you because [b]he does not desire any to
be destroyed but desires all to attain to repentance.


It seems in view of this verse that God exercises a patience towards humanity, so
tha ...[text shortened]... reconciliation, however, it must be noted that God will
not tolerate immorality, indefinitely.[/b]
Okay.

So, does God think that in the absence of repentance, death is a fair punishment for the practicing homosexual?

u
semper fi

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Originally posted by LemonJello
Okay.

So, does God think that in the absence of repentance, death is a fair punishment for the practicing homosexual?
Hows that for reading comprehension? Thumbs up (not that they mean anything, but I rarely give them).

F

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Originally posted by galveston75
Yes it would be if we were still under the mosiac laws. Do you disagree?
So God changed His mind about homosexuality being punishable by death? Under the Mosiac laws it was punishable by death but now God doesn't want it punished by death anymore. Right?

rc

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Originally posted by LemonJello
Okay.

So, does God think that in the absence of repentance, death is a fair punishment for the practicing homosexual?
ALL immoral acts relative to Gods standards are punishable by the practitioner being
cut off from God. This is not only 'fair', it is just. The practitioner brings it upon
themselves by virtue of their lack of repentance, no one is ever punished because of
their crime, they are punished because they refuse to repent and this punishment
ultimately means being cut off from God, eternally.

rc

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Originally posted by usmc7257
Hows that for reading comprehension? Thumbs up (not that they mean anything, but I rarely give them).
my goodness, your easily impressed, do you also find washing machines as equally as
entertaining to watch?

L

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
ALL immoral acts relative to Gods standards are punishable by the practitioner being
cut off from God. This is not only 'fair', it is just. The practitioner brings it upon
themselves by virtue of their lack of repentance, no one is ever punished because of
their crime, they are punished because they refuse to repent and this punishment
ultimately means being cut off from God, eternally.
Not sure if you are just obfuscating again; but this does not really answer the question in any genuine way, since it fails to address obviously salient cases.

Let me give you a more concrete example. Suppose S is a practicing homosexual in a monogamous relationship that both partners find very meaningful, valuable, satisfying, healthy, etc; suppose S believes on the basis of his evidence that God does not exist; suppose S holds basically no attitude toward the prospect of repenting and would believe, if he were to introspect on it on the basis of his evidence, that there is simply no reason to repent, that repentance is simply not called for or appropriate to his situation, etc. Please note that this basically entails BOTH that S is not repentant AND that it is not the case that S refuses to be repentant. So, it is not covered by your response, even though you surely must realize this is an extremely salient case.

So, does God think that death is a fair and just punishment for S?

RJHinds
The Near Genius

Fort Gordon

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Originally posted by FMF
So God changed His mind about homosexuality being punishable by death? Under the Mosiac laws it was punishable by death but now God doesn't want it punished by death anymore. Right?
I am sure you have been told this before, but I will repeat it again for
those on here that will listen to reason. The Mosaic Laws were made
by Moses due to the hardness of the peoples hearts. God gave Moses
only the Ten Commandents written in stone by God's own finger. It
was the idea of Moses to elaborate on those commandments in an
attempt to get the people to do right and provide punishment as a
deterent for disobedience. Jesus stated that it was due to the hardness
of their hearts that Moses made laws for divorce, for it was not God's
will from the beginning. Jesus did not stone to death the woman
caught in the act of adultery in accordance with the laws of Moses,
but told her to go and sin no more. Jesus, being the Son of God, knew
God's will and acted accordingly.

P.S.
http://bible.org/article/mosaic-law-its-function-and-purpose-new-testament

RJHinds
The Near Genius

Fort Gordon

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Originally posted by LemonJello
Not sure if you are just obfuscating again; but this does not really answer the question in any genuine way, since it fails to address obviously salient cases.

Let me give you a more concrete example. Suppose S is a practicing homosexual in a monogamous relationship that both partners find very meaningful, valuable, satisfying, healthy, etc; suppose ...[text shortened]... extremely salient case.

So, does God think that death is a fair and just punishment for S?
Sin is still sin regardless of the of the belief of an individual. The ultimate
punishment for sin according to the Holy Bible is death. God has left the
final judgment up to His Son, who knows the will of God. It will be up to
the Son of God to forgive or not based upon His knowledge of our heart's
intent and the will of God. But you have free will to believe whatever you
wish and do whatever you wish. Keep in mind that there will be a final
judgment for whatever you do in the flesh, good or bad.

Merry Christmas. 🙂

rc

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Originally posted by LemonJello
Not sure if you are just obfuscating again; but this does not really answer the question in any genuine way, since it fails to address obviously salient cases.

Let me give you a more concrete example. Suppose S is a practicing homosexual in a monogamous relationship that both partners find very meaningful, valuable, satisfying, healthy, etc; suppose ...[text shortened]... extremely salient case.

So, does God think that death is a fair and just punishment for S?
first of all, its irrelevant whether the persons are in 'a monogamous relationship that
both partners find very meaningful, valuable, satisfying, healthy' your words,
homosexuality is immoral from a Biblical perspective. That they do not believe in
the existence of God is also irrelevant, homosexuality is immoral from a Biblical
perspective, simply because they do not recognise the validity of this or the
existence of God does not negate this fact. I will repeat it again,

ALL immoral acts relative to Gods standards (whether the practitioner recognises
their validity or otherwise) are punishable by the practitioner being cut off from God,
this is entirely fair (they have been given a chance to repent) yet continue in their
practice. The only excuse they may have is that they did not know, which is hardly
likely seeing that the Bible is the most widely published, widely translated and widely
distributed publication in the history of humanity.

rc

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Originally posted by RJHinds
Sin is still sin regardless of the of the belief of an individual. The ultimate
punishment for sin according to the Holy Bible is death. God has left the
final judgment up to His Son, who knows the will of God. It will be up to
the Son of God to forgive or not based upon His knowledge of our heart's
intent and the will of God. But you have free will ...[text shortened]... ill be a final
judgment for whatever you do in the flesh, good or bad.

Merry Christmas. 🙂
yes, this explains it rather well.

rc

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Originally posted by RJHinds
I am sure you have been told this before, but I will repeat it again for
those on here that will listen to reason. The Mosaic Laws were made
by Moses due to the hardness of the peoples hearts. God gave Moses
only the Ten Commandents written in stone by God's own finger. It
was the idea of Moses to elaborate on those commandments in an
attempt to get ...[text shortened]... rdingly.

P.S.
http://bible.org/article/mosaic-law-its-function-and-purpose-new-testament
Actually the law was given to make sins manifest, and as a tutor leading towards the Christ.

u
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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
my goodness, your easily impressed, do you also find washing machines as equally as
entertaining to watch?
I LOVE washing machines! they make me dizzy when I watch the spin cycle...🙄

divegeester
watching in dismay

STARMERGEDDON

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Originally posted by RJHinds
Sin is still sin regardless of the of the belief of an individual. The ultimate
punishment for sin according to the Holy Bible is death. God has left the
final judgment up to His Son, who knows the will of God. It will be up to
the Son of God to forgive or not based upon His knowledge of our heart's
intent and the will of God. But you have free will ...[text shortened]... ill be a final
judgment for whatever you do in the flesh, good or bad.

Merry Christmas. 🙂
If you are saying that there is still judgement to be feared for those who are in Christ, then I don't agree.

Romans 8:1

Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus, because through Christ Jesus the law of the Spirit of life set me free from the law of sin and death.

For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the sinful nature, God did by sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful man to be a sin offering, and so he condemned sin in sinful man, in order that the righteous requirements of the law might be fully met in us, who do not live according to the sinful nature but according to the Spirit.

If you are in Christ and he has set you free, then you are free indeed.

rc

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Originally posted by usmc7257
I LOVE washing machines! they make me dizzy when I watch the spin cycle...🙄
yes, they are rather hypnotic 🙂

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