Spirituality
24 Aug 12
Originally posted by FMFthen make reference to the points i have made regarding John 1:1 which demonstrates
The issue is if you don't have the linguistic abilities you claim to have, then you do not have credibility when you comment on "spiritual matters' from a linguistic point of view, which means you are posting in bad faith when you try to smack down fellow posters on this premise.
my understanding based on the Greek text, or simply continue to insinuate bilge and
nothingness and expect that it will stick.
Originally posted by FMFThe majority of people in Pakistan speak Punjabi, except in the Sind and Baluchistan,
How many years have you studied Urdu formally? Were you actually in Pakistan for only two years? Are you fluent enough to enter into biblical discourse with people who speak no English?
the Northern areas speak Peshtu, you forget that i speak it every day in my home and
yes i am fluent enough to engage people in all manner of life and subjects, so what?
Originally posted by robbie carrobieIt is you who has to make a credible claim that you understand Urdu "on the same basis" as you understand English and that you understand Greek "on the same basis" as you understand English. Your evasions would suggest that you might have a smattering of conversational Urdu after being in Pakistan for two years, and that you have read - or have access to - articles in your magazines about "The Greek" and "The English" in the bible. That's how you come across, and yet what you claim is that you read and write Urdu and Greek "on the same basis" as English. It does not add up.
then if there is no way to verify it, how are we to account for your disbelief, other than
your cynicism, after all, you have provided no evidence for your claims nor can you,
therefore, by the same token, whoever believes you will believe you anyway and it is
none of my concern and is of little consequence either way. as for me, i could not care
less.
Originally posted by FMFyawn, more nothingness. a smattering of conversational Urdu, really, what evidence
It is you who has to make a credible claim that you understand Urdu "on the same basis" as you understand English and that you understand Greek "on the same basis" as you understand English. Your evasions would suggest that you might have a smattering of conversational Urdu after being in Pakistan for two years, and that you have read - or have access to - artic you read and write Urdu and Greek "on the same basis" as English. It does not add up.
have you for this claim you said it, i want to hear you state what evidence? How long
did i study prior to going to Pakistan? do tell if you know? How long is a public
discourse in Urdu, how did i get by on a smattering of conversational Urdu as you have
claimed, do tell.
Originally posted by robbie carrobie"Fluent enough" to enter into discourse and disputation on biblical translations... because you spent 2 years in Pakistan and "speak it every day in [your] home"? Do you think this is credible?
The majority of people in Pakistan speak Punjabi, except in the Sind and Baluchistan,
the Northern areas speak Peshtu, you forget that i speak it every day in my home and
yes i am fluent enough to engage people in all manner of life and subjects, so what?
Originally posted by robbie carrobieAnyone can look up disputations about "The Greek" and "The English" on the internet. You are claiming to speak and read Greek "on the same basis" as English. Do you mean 20th century Greek?
then make reference to the points i have made regarding John 1:1 which demonstrates
my understanding based on the Greek text, or simply continue to insinuate bilge and
nothingness and expect that it will stick.
Originally posted by FMFread the text, how long did I study prior to going to Pakistan, Mr Big Mouth cynical don't
"Fluent enough" to enter into discourse and disputation on biblical translations... because you spent 2 years in Pakistan and "speak it every day in [your] home"? Do you think this is credible?
know anything but my own assumption and lying insinuation,
Originally posted by FMFthen find the reference that i quoted or make reference to the points that i made on the
Anyone can look up disputations about "The Greek" and "The English" on the internet. You are claiming to speak and read Greek "on the same basis" as English. Do you mean 20th century Greek?
basis of my own understanding, is that the best evidence you have, none. I see, how
convincing.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieI am questioning your claim that you read and write Greek "on the same basis" as English, not your ability to reference your magazine articles or the internet.
then find the reference that i quoted or make reference to the points that i made on the
basis of my own understanding, is that the best evidence you have, none. I see, how
convincing.
Originally posted by FMFYou have stated that i got by on a smattering of conversational Urdu, evidence nil, this
[b]How long did i study prior to going to Pakistan?
I've asked you repeatedly how long you have spent studying Urdu formally but you have refused to answer.[/b]
sums you up FMF, you make vile insinuations on the basis of no evidence and simply
expect others to buy into it, when in fact, you don't know anything, why do you do it?
Do you think its amusing to slander people in this way? Can you understand why
people may not want to engage someone who does that type of thing? You have no
idea how long I studied, you have no idea, how many times I have been to Pakistan,
you have no idea how long a public discourse is and how much work it takes to prepare
one, you have no idea what i read or speak on a daily basis, and yet you see fit to issue
the most vile of insinuations, with no evidence other that a cynical disposition, that is
you FMF, it is what you do. Please I really have nothing more to say to you, that's it for me.
Originally posted by FMFwhat magazine FMF, you have not said, in fact, I don't think i made reference to any
I am questioning your claim that you read and write Greek "on the same basis" as English, not your ability to reference your magazine articles or the internet.
magazine in my comments, yes i made them on the basis of my own understanding of
the Greek text, clearly i must know something about it or perhaps you can refute my
points on the basis of some on-line magazine, like i did to produce them, should be
easy as you say.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieVile? Slander? Vile (again)? Cynical? I was simply questioning your claim that you read and write Greek and Urdu "on the same basis" as English, and I asked you severalof questions which you refused to answer. And it has provoked a post like the one above. People might wonder why.
You have stated that i got by on a smattering of conversational Urdu, evidence nil, this
sums you up FMF, you make vile insinuations on the basis of no evidence and simply
expect others to buy into it, when in fact, you don't know anything, why do you do it?
Do you think its amusing to slander people in this way? Can you understand why
peop ...[text shortened]... ou FMF, it is what you do. Please I really have nothing more to say to you, that's it for me.
You have no idea how long I studied
I've asked you point blank 4-5 times and you wouldn't say.
Originally posted by robbie carrobieWell your claim that you read and write Greek and Urdu "on the same basis" as English isn't credible, so presumably you get your pronouncements on "The Greek" v "The English" from someone else.
what magazine FMF, you have not said, in fact, I don't think i made reference to any
magazine in my comments, yes i made them on the basis of my own understanding of
the Greek text, clearly i must know something about it or perhaps you can refute my
points on the basis of some on-line magazine, like i did to produce them, should be
easy as you say.