Originally posted by robbie carrobiePresumably you think that the way "German Bible translator L. Reinhardt" translates it is "evidence" of something? That is why you cited his view, surely?
evidence of what? accurate translation, erroneous translation, religious bias in translation? evidence of what dear FMF?
Originally posted by johnnylongwoodyJust plain logic will tell you the comma should be after Today...
Ok, here is just one example.
When Jesus was crucified and he was speaking to the two
people crucified with him. He said to one of them,
Truly I tell you today you will be with me in paradise.
Experts disagree with the way and the context in which Jesus said those words.
Some say he meant......TODAY you will be with me in paradise.
...[text shortened]... that is a very simple example of how men have argued
for centuries over a small piece of text.
Originally posted by FMFso the way it has been translated is evidence of a consensus, hardly FMF, as you point, out the scholar I cited states quite the opposite , so that it is clearly not evidence of a consensus, so I will ask you again, the way that it has been translated is evidence of what?
Evidence of the "consensus" you said that needs to be reached.